Statement- Based Current Affairs 1. Michael Douglas was honored with the prestigious Satyajit Ray Lifetime Achievement Award for Excellence in Cinema. Consider the following statements regarding Satyajit Ray - (1) He was honored with the prestigious Legion of Honour by the French government, and in 1992. (2) Ray's directorial debut came with the film "Aparajito" (1955). (3) He was posthumously awarded the Academy Award for Lifetime Achievement. Which of the above is/are correct? (A) Only (1) and (3) (B) Only (1) and (2) (C) Only (2) and (3) (D) None of the above 2. NASA's Psyche spacecraft recently achieved a groundbreaking feat by successfully firing a laser signal at Earth. A satellite is said to be in such an orbit when - (1) The orbit is geosynchronous. (2) The orbit lies in the plane of the Earth’s equator. (3) The orbit is at an altitude of 22,236 km. Which of the above is/are correct? (A) Only (1) and (3) (B) Only (1) and (2) (C) Only (2) and (3) (D) None of the above 3. With the increasing demand for high-speed internet connections Optical Fibres have been materialized into the present-day reality of highspeed data transmission. Consider the following statements: (1) Fiber optics is based on the principle of total internal reflection. (2) In an optical fiber communication system, power consumption is extremely low. (3) In India, Reliance Group of Industries is engaged in the manufacture of optical fiber. Which of the above is/are correct? (A) Only (1) and (3) (B) Only (1) and (2) (C) Only (2) and (3) (D) None of the above 4. Recently, the UK Drug Regulator sanctioned a gene therapy called Casgevy heralded as a significant breakthrough for treating sickle cell disease and thalassaemia. Consider the following statements - (1) Sickle cell disease is a genetic blood disorder characterized by an abnormality in platelets. (2) Sickle cell disease causes red blood cells to adopt a sickle or crescent shape. (3) Hemoglobin is the protein responsible for carrying oxygen in red blood cells. Which of the above is/are correct? (A) Only (1) and (3) (B) Only (1) and (2) (C) Only (2) and (3) (D) None of the above 5. Recently, the Madhya Pradesh political parties filed a complaint with the state Chief Electoral Officer, accusing manipulation of postal ballots. Consider the following statements - (1) The Election Commission of India is a threemember body. (2) The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. (3) Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties. Which of the above is/are correct? (A) Only (1) and (3) (B) Only (1) and (2) (C) Only (2) and (3) (D) None of the above 6. Recently, Global Energy Monitor (GEM) has released its quarterly update of GEM’s Global Coal Plant Tracker. Consider the following statements - (1) Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi. (2) Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis. (3) Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal production. Which of the above is/are correct? (A) Only (1) (B) Only (1) and (2) (C) Only (2) (D) None of the above 7. India is viewing Pressmud, a residual byproduct of Sugar, as a valuable resource for green energy production by creating Compressed Biogas (CBG). Consider the following statements - (1) A substantial saving in seed material is made when ‘bud chip settlings’ are raised in a nurse, and transplanted in the main field. (2) When direct planting of setts is done, the germination percentage is better with single budded setts as compared to setts with many buds. (3) Sugarcane can be cultivated using settlings prepared from tissue culture. Which of the above is/are correct? (A) Only (1) and (3) (B) Only (1) and (2) (C) Only (2) and (3) (D) None of the above 8. According to a report prepared from the analysis of data from the UDISE+ and AISHE, the enrollment in higher education among Muslim students has dropped significantly. In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors l ike telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.? (1) Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament (2) Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees (3) Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission Which of the above is/are correct? (A) Only (1) and (3) (B) Only (1) and (2) (C) Only (2) and (3) (D) None of the above 9. The DGCA issued an advisory to Indian airlines detailing mitigating measures. Consider the following statements regarding Directorate General of Civil Aviation - (1) It is an attached office of the Ministry of Civil Aviation. (2) It is the regulatory body in the field of safety issues. (3) Directorate General of Civil Aviation is a constitutional body. Which of the above is/are correct? (A) Only (1) and (3) (B) Only (1) and (2) (C) Only (2) and (3) (D) None of the above 10. Recently, the Supreme Court has stated when the Governor chooses to withhold assent to a Bill, it is mandatory for them to follow a specific course of action outlined in Article 200 of the Constitution. In context to the same tell us, which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State? (1) Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule. (2) Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India. (3) Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government. Which of the above is/are correct? (A) Only (1) and (3) (B) Only (1) and (2) (C) Only (2) and (3) (D) None of the above 11. Coal output from captive mines rose 37% in November. Consider the following statements (1) Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury. (2) Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment. (3) High ash content is observed in Indian coal. Which of the above is/are correct? (A) Only (1) and (3) (B) Only (1) and (2) (C) Only (2) and (3) (D) All of the above 12. Cabinet approves Rs 24104 crore outlay for development mission for particularly vulnerable tribal groups. Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India - (1) A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status. (2) There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far. (3) Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs. Which of the above is/are correct? (A) Only (1) and (3) (B) Only (1) and (2) (C) Only (2) and (3) (D) None of the above 13. Recently, the Centre's Ude Desh Ka Aam Naagrik (UDAN) initiative has approved four novel air routes linking northeastern states with international destinations. Consider the following statements - (1) UDAN was launched in 2016. (2) UDAN is an International Airport Development Program of the Government of India. (3) Till launching of UDAN in 2016, India had 74 airports having scheduled operations. Which of the above is/are correct? (A) Only (1) and (3) (B) Only (1) and (2) (C) Only (2) and (3) (D) None of the above 14. Recently, the President of India has paid tributes to Dr. Rajendra Prasad, the first President of India on his birth anniversary. Consider the following statements regarding Dr Rajendra Prasad - (1) Dr Rajendra Prasad was born in Zeradei, Siwan, Bihar on 3rd December 1884. (2) He was associated with Mahatma Gandhi during the Champaran Satyagraha (1917) in Bihar. (3) He officially joined the Indian National Congress in 1911, during its annual session held in Patna. Which of the above is/are correct? (A) Only (1) and (3) (B) Only (1) and (2) (C) Only (2) and (3) (D) None of the above 15. Recently, India has been unanimously elected as a member representing the Asian region in the Executive Committee of Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC).Consider the following statements regarding Codex Alimentarius Commission - (1) India became the member of Codex Alimentarius in 1988. (2) CAC is an international food standards body established jointly by the FAO and WHO. (3) It was established in May 1963 with the objective of ensuring fair practices in food trade. Which of the above is/are correct? (A) Only (1) and (3) (B) Only (1) and (2) (C) Only (2) and (3) (D) None of the above 16. NITI Aayog held Workshop on India-AU Collaboration. Consider the following statements about the NITI Aayog - (1) The aim of NITI Aayog is to achieve Sustainable Development Goals and to enhance cooperative federalism in the country. (2) The Prime Minister of India is the ex officio Chairperson of the NITI Aayog. (3) There are 8 full time members in the NITI Aayog. Which of the above is/are correct? (A) Only (1) and (3) (B) Only (1) and (2) (C) Only (2) and (3) (D) None of the above 17. Apple 'hacking' alerts: Government sends notice to the company. Consider the following statements - (1) Pegasus is a type of malicious software classified as a spyware. (2) A Trojan Horse is spyware disguised as legitimate software. (3) The virus inserts itself into another program. Which of the above is/are correct? (A) Only (1) and (3) (B) Only (1) and (2) (C) Only (2) and (3) (D) None of the above 18. Scientists from the British Antarctic Survey (BAS) have identified the presence of Highly Pathogenic Avian Influenza (HPAI) in the Antarctic region for the first time. Consider the following statements - (1) Swine flu is an infection caused by avian influenza viruses. (2) The first outbreak of human infection by avian influenza viruses (H5N1) was observed in 1997 in Hong Kong. (3) The initial outbreak of Highly Pathogenic Avian Influenza (HPAI) H5N1 in India occurred in 2006 in Maharashtra. Which of the above is/are correct? (A) Only (1) and (3) (B) Only (1) and (2) (C) Only (2) and (3) (D) None of the above 19. India is gearing up for a historic Deep Ocean Mission to explore and harness the depths of the ocean. Consider the following statements regarding Deep Ocean Mission - (1) Deep Ocean Mission (DOM) is an ambitious initiative of the Ministry of Environment. (2) It is one of nine missions under the Prime Minister’s Science, Technology, and Innovation Advisory Council (PMSTIAC). (3) As a part of DOM, Samudryaan and Matsya6000 was initiated in 2021. Which of the above is/are correct? (A) Only (1) and (3) (B) Only (1) and (2) (C) Only (2) and (3) (D) None of the above 20. Atal Innovation Mission opened applications for the 'Atal Tinkering Lab(ATL) Marathon 2023- 24'. Consider the following statements - (1) The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative of Ministry of Innovation and Technology. (2) It is launched to promote innovation and entrepreneurship across the country. Which of the above is/are correct? (A) Only (1) (B) Only (1) and (2) (C) Only (2) (D) None of the above 21. Recently, the Union Minister of Ports, Shipping & Waterways flagged off the maiden voyage of the vessel Costa Serena. Consider the following statements regarding Inland Waterways Authority of India - (1) It came into existence on 27th October 1986. (2) It primarily undertakes projects for development and maintenance of IWT infrastructure. (3) It is headquartered in Mumbai. Which of the above is/are correct? (A) Only (1) and (3) (B) Only (1) and (2) (C) Only (2) and (3) (D) None of the above 22. Recent research reveals that Earth's deep interior contains evidence of a massive collision more than 4.46 billion years ago. Consider the following statements regarding Earth’s Inner Core - (1) The inner core has an average radius of 1220 km. (2) The inner core is liquid due to the pressure caused by the weight put on it. (3) The inner core can spin independently. Which of the above is/are correct? (A) Only (1) and (3) (B) Only (1) and (2) (C) Only (2) and (3) (D) None of the above 23. The Indian government has launched the sale of 'Bharat' brand Atta (wheat flour) with a maximum retail price (MRP) of Rs 27.50 per kilogram. Consider the following statements - (1) NAFED is an apex Organisation under the Ministry of Agriculture, Government of India. (2) It was founded on 2nd October 1958. (3) Its headquarters in Gurugram. Which of the above is/are correct? (A) Only (1) and (3) (B) Only (1) and (2) (C) Only (2) and (3) (D) None of the above 24. Recently, the Karnataka State Health Department issued an alert following Zika virus detection in mosquito samples. Consider the following statements - (1) Malaria is caused by the Virus named Plasmodium Vivax. (2) Zika virus is transmitted through sexual activity. (3) Ritonavir is the medicine is used for the treatment of HIV. Which of the above is/are correct? (A) Only (1) and (3) (B) Only (1) and (2) (C) Only (2) and (3) (D) None of the above 25. Recently, the Indian Prime Minister has announced an extension of the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY) for an additional five years. Consider the following statements - (1) The PMGKAY was first introduced in 2020. (2) Its nodal Ministry is the Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. (3) The scheme aimed at providing each person who is covered under the National Food Security Act 2013. Which of the above is/are correct? (A) Only (1) and (3) (B) Only (1) and (2) (C) Only (2) and (3) (D) None of the above Statement Based Current Affairs 1-(A) 2-(B) 3-(B) 4-(C) 5-(A) 6-(A) 7-(A) 8-(B) 9-(B) 10-(B) 11-(D) 12-(A) 13-(A) 14-(B) 15-(C) 16-(B) 17-(A) 18-(C) 19-(C) 20-(C) 21-(B) 22-(A) 23-(B) 24-(C) 25-(A) Statement Based General Awareness 1. Which of the following statements is true regarding Rowlatt Act? I. “Rowlatt Act” in towns across North and West India, life came to a standstill, as shops shut down and schools closed in response to the bandh call. II. “Rowlatt Act” the protests were particularly intense in the Punjab, where many men had served on the British side in the War – expecting to be rewarded for their service. Select the correct option (A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II 2. Which of the following statements is true? I. Colonial cities of India became important centres of trade due to the economic activities of the English East India Company. II. Colonial cities of India company agents settled in Madras in 1639 and in Calcutta in 1690. Select the correct option (A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II 3. Which of the following statements is true regarding Mahajanpadas? I. The Mahajanapadas of the sixth century BCE early Buddhist and Jaina texts mention, amongst other things, sixteen states known as mahajanapadas. II. Each mahajanapada had a capital city, which was often fortified. Maintaining these fortified cities as well as providing for incipient armies and bureaucracies required resources. (A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II 4. Consider the following statements: 1. Kasi got its name from rivers Varuna and Asi as cited in the Matsya Purana. 2. Vatsa is located around the present-day Allahabad. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A)1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 5. Which among the following statements about the earth is not true? (A) The Earth makes one complete revolution round the Sun every 365 days, 5 hours, 48 minutes, and 46 seconds. (B) The Earth makes one complete revolution on its axis in 48 hours (C) The Earth revolves in its orbit round the Sun at a speed of 66,000 miles per hour (D) The Earth rotates on its axis at an equatorial speed of more than 1000 miles per hour 6. Consider the following Correct statements about Ozone Layer 1. A layer of 3 is spread like an invisible canopy over the earth’s atmosphere to a variable extent. 2. Highest concentration is found between 15- 35 km in stratosphere 3. It is also found in troposphere 4. It helps in keeping troposphere warm and regulates the jet stream which is found at the lower part of the stratosphere. (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1 and 4 (C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 1, 3 and 4 7. Regarding “carbon credits” which one of the following statements is not correct? 1. The carbon credit system was ratified in conjunction with the Kyoto Protocol. 2. Carbon credits are awarded to countries or groups that have reduced greenhouse gases below their emission quota. 3.The goal of the carbon credit system is to limit the increase of carbon. 4. Carbon credits are traded at a price fixed from time to time by the United Nations Environment Programme. (A) 1 and 4 (B) Only 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) only 4 8. Consider the following statements. 1. The international political response to climate change began with the adoption of the UNFCCC in 1997. 2. The UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) sets out a framework for action aimed at stabilizing atmospheric concentrations of greenhouse gases to avoid “dangerous anthropogenic interference” with the climate system. 3. The UNFCCC entered into force in 1998, and now has 192 parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 and 4 (B) Only 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) only 3 9. Which of the following statement (s) is/are true? I. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law. II. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the LokSabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders. Select the correct option. (A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II 10. Which of the following statement (s) is/are true? I. A deadlock between the LokSabha and the RajyaSabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of Ordinary Legislation. II. A Bill is said to be a ordinary Bill if it only contains provisions related to taxation. Select the correct option. (A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II 11. Which of the following statement (s) is/are true regarding the procedure for formation/ establishment of states. I. Special majority of parliament is required for the purpose. II. President should ascertain the views of concerned legislature to this effect. Select the correct option. (A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II 12. Which of the following statement (s) is/are true? (the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India). I. Protection of the interests of minorities. II. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour. Select the correct option. (A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II 13. Consider the following statements. 1. Oxidation is the loss of electrons or an increase in the oxidation state of an atom by another atom, an ion, or a molecule. 2. Reduction is the gain of electrons or a decrease in the oxidation state of an atom by another atom, an ion, or a molecule. Which is/are correct statement (A) Only I (B) Only 2 (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) None of these 14. Consider the following statements. 1. PTFE (Teflon) is known for its use in coating non-stick frying pans and other cookware, as it has a significantly higher heat resistance. 2. Teflon is made of pipes, cable insulation, doors etc. and it is manufactured by multiplication of monomer vinyl chloride. Which is/are correct statement? (A) Only I (B) Only 2 (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) None of these 15. Consider the following statements. 1. The Nuclear Fusion on the Sun’s surface result into formation of helium Atoms. 2. The source of continuous energy from the Sun is actually the magnitude of the nuclear fusion process happening inside the Sun. Which is/are correct statement? (A) Only I (B) Only 2 (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) None of these 16. Consider the following statements. 1. Sodium Carbonate, commonly called Washing Soda or Soda Ash, is a water-soluble sodium salt of carbonic acid. 2. Baking soda, also known as sodium bicarbonate, it is widely used in baking. Which is/are not correct statement? (A) Only I (B) Only 2 (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) None of these 17. Which of the following statement (s) is/are true? I. The Embryonic stem cells can be derived from early embryo which is developed by “invitro fertilization”. II. Fertilization made artificially in the laboratory is called Invitro fertilization. Select the correct option. (A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II 18. Which of the following statement (s) is/are true? I. Stem cells are the most unspecialized mass of cells. II. Artificial clones are developed by nuclear transfer into the host cell. Select the correct option. (A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II 19. Which of the following statement (s) is/are true? I. The induced clones are developed by Nuclear transfer into the host cell. II. Antigen transfer in the cell. Select the correct option. (A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II 20. Which of the following statement (s) is/are true? I. Antibodies are a type of derived lipids. II. Monoclonal anti-bodies are the anti-bodies produced by cloned cells. Select the correct option. (A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II 21. Recently, China placed a “hold” on two joint India-US proposals, to designate Lashkar-e-Taiba (LeT) top leaders at the United Nations Security Council’s (UNSC) 1267 list of terrorists affiliated to Al Qaeda and ISIS. Consider the following statements regarding UNSC 1267 Committee - (1) It was first set up in 1999. (2) It comprises only permanent members of UNSC. (3) It is now known as the Da’esh and Al Qaeda Sanctions Committee. Which of the above is/are correct? (A) Only (1) and (2) (B) Only (2) and (3) (C) Only (3) and (1) (D) All are correct 22. Recently, Government of India has announced a month-long programme named the ‘Kashi-Tamil Sangamam’. Consider the following statements regarding Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat - (1) It was launched in 2015 to promote engagement. (2) It is an initiative of the Ministry of Education. (3) Under the Scheme every State and UT in the country would be paired with another State/UT for a time period. Which of the above is/are correct? (A) Only (1) and (2) (B) Only (2) and (3) (C) Only (3) and (1) (D) All are correct 23. World Polio Day is celebrated every year on October 24 to create awareness around the importance of polio vaccination to protect children. With reference to Polio, consider the following statements (1) Polio is transmitted through the faecal-oral route. (2) It is caused by a bacterium. (3) It invades the nervous system, and can cause total paralysis (Acute flaccid Paralysis). Which of the above is/are correct? (A) Only (1) and (3) (B) Only (1) and (2) (C) Only (2) and (3) (D) None of the above 24. According to a recent study by environmental and energy think-tank, Climate Risk Horizons (CRH), India's green hydrogen move may worsen pollution. Consider the following statements regarding National Green Hydrogen Mission - (1) It is a program to incentivize the commercial production of green hydrogen. (2) Ministry of Power is the Nodal Ministry of it. (3) The Prime minister has also set a 2047 deadline for becoming self-reliant in energy. Which of the above is/are correct? (A) Only (1) and (3) (B) Only (1) and (2) (C) Only (2) and (3) (D) None of the above 25. Only the Gir indigenous cow breed is being promoted under Rashtriya Gokul Mission. Consider the following statements regarding Rashtriya Gokul Mission - (1) It is being implemented for the development and conservation of indigenous bovine breeds. (2) It aims to discourage the use of artificial insemination for breeding purposes. (3) It was started to enhance the productivity of bovines and increasing milk production in a sustainable manner using advance technologies. Which of the above is/are correct? (A) Only (1) (B) Only (1) and (3) (C) Only (2) (D) None of the above Statement Based General Awareness 1-(C) 2-(C) 3-(C) 4-(C) 5-(B)6-(A) 7-(D) 8-(B) 9-(C) 10-(A) 11-(D) 12-(B) 13-(C) 14-(A) 15-(C) 16-(C) 17-(B) 18-(C) 19-(A) 20-(B) 21-(C) 22-(D) 23-(A) 24-(A) 25-(C) Current Affairs 1. Andry Rajoelina has been re-elected as the president of which country? (A) Madagascar (B) Mauritius (C) Seychelles (D) Mozambique 2. International Day of Solidarity with the Palestinian people has been observed on which day? (A) 26 November (B) 27 November (C) 28 November (D) 29 November 3. The Indian Navy conducted ‘Operational Demonstration 2023’ at which city? (A) Sindhudurg (B) Satara (C) Ahmednagar (D) Kankavli 4. Who has been appointed as the new chief secretary of Jammu and Kashmir? (A) Pradip Kumar Tripathi (B) Umang Narula (C) Atal Dulloo (D) Arun Kumar Mehta 5. Arunachal Pradesh CM Pema Khandu has inaugurated "Hump World War-II museum" along with whom? (A) Philip Green (B) Eric Garcetti (C) Mustafizur Rahman (D) Denis Alipov 6. Which English language word has been chosen as "word of the year" by Merriam-Webster? (A) Authentic (B) Gaslighting (C) Vaccine (D) Pandemic 7. Fino Payments Bank has named whom as its part-time chairman? (A) Rishi Gupta (B) Ketan Merchant (C) Ashish Ahuja (D) Rajat Kumar Jain 8. Cabinet has approved the extension of "Garib Kalyan" food grain programme for how many years? (A) 8 years (B) 4 years (C) 5 years (D) 2 years 9. Who has recently honored with Satyajit Ray Lifetime Achievement Award for Excellence in Cinema at the 54th IFFI? (A) Michael Douglas (B) Diandra Luker (C) Kathleen Turner (D) Anne Buydens 10. Which country has named the cyclone 'Michaung' formed in the Bay of Bengal? (A) India (B) Bangladesh (C) Myanmar (D) Sri Lanka 11. In which city will the Expo 2030 World Fair be organized? (A) Dubai (B) Doha (C) Manama (D) Riyadh 12. Who has been re-appointed as the CEO of OpenAI? (A) Brett Taylor (B) Meera Murati (C) Sam Altman (D) Greg Brockman 13. India's first 'Telecom Center of Excellence' will be launched in which state? (A) Madhya Pradesh (B) Haryana (C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Assam 14. Where is the 40th Coast Guard Commanders' Conference being held? (A) New Delhi (B) Mumbai (C) Jaipur (D) Chennai 15. Which African cricket team has qualified for the ICC Men's T20 World Cup 2024? (A) Zimbabwe (B) Uganda (C) Kenya (D) Ghana 16. Rural Marketing Association of India has appointed whom as its president for 2023-2025? (A) Puneet Vidyarthi (B) Pradeep Lokhande (C) Anup Kalra (D) Himanshu K Shah 17. What is the theme of Bengaluru Tech Summit 2023? (A) "Encapsulates the spirit" (B) "Driving the Next" (C) "Breaking Boundaries" (D) "Next is Now" 18. International Day of Remembrance for all Victims of Chemical Warfare has been observed of which day? (A) 28 November (B) 29 November (C) 30 November (D) 01 December 19. What is the theme of World AIDS Day 2023? (A) The right to health (B) Let Communities Lead (C) Know Your Status (D) Global solidarity 20. Which state hockey team has won the 13th Hockey India Senior Men National Championship 2023? (A) Haryana (B) Bihar (C) Kerala (D) Punjab 21. Which technology has been introduced by Indian Railways to prevent accidents caused by elephants on railway tracks? (A) "Hathi Kavach" (B) "Gajraj Suraksha" (C) "Gaj Suraksha" (D) "Gajendra Kavach" 22. Where is the COP-28 summit being organized? (A) Riyadh (B) Nairobi (C) Sydney (D) Dubai 23. In which state is the Hornbill Festival organized every year? (A) Nagaland (B) Assam (C) Tripura (D) Meghalaya 24. Where has the India International Trade Fair organized? (A) Mumbai (B) New Delhi (C) Lucknow (D) Patna 25. Where did Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurate the 10,000th Jan Aushadhi Kendra? (A) Ujjain (B) Varanasi (C) Patna (D) Deoghar Current Affairs 1-(A) 2-(D) 3-(A) 4-(C) 5-(B) 6-(A) 7-(D) 8-(C) 9-(A) 10-(C) 11-(D) 12-(C) 13-(C) 14-(A) 15-(B) 16-(A) 17-(C) 18-(C) 19-(B) 20-(D) 21-(B) 22-(D) 23-(A) 24-(B) 25-(D) History 1. In 1888, who became the first English President of Indian National Congress? (A) Sir John Shore (B) Annie Besant (C) Sir William Wedderburn (D) George Yule 2. Who authored the book ‘The Indian Struggle’ which covers the Indian independence movement from 1920 to 1942? (A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (B) Lala Lajpat Rai (C) Subhas Chandra Bose (D) Rajendra Prasad 3. In which year, Non-cooperation movement was endorsed at the Nagpur session of the Indian National Congress? (A) 1918 (B) 1919 (C) 1921 (D) 1920 4. In whose reign was the dam built on the Sudarshan lake near Girnar in Kathiawar? (A) Pushya gupta (B) Chandragupta Maurya (C) Skandgupta (D) Chandragupta-II 5. Allahabad Pillar Inscription (Prayag Prasasti) was issued by Samudragupta and was composed by _______. (A) Harsena (B) Kalidasa (C) Bharavi (D) Vishnugupta 6. Chauri Chaura incident took place on 5 February 1922 in which province of British India? (A) West Bengal (B) Bihar (C) United Provinces (D)Bombay 7. Who had led non-violent march in protest against Simon Commission visited Lahore? (A) Bhagat Singh (B) Lala Lajpat Rai (C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (D) Bipin Chandra Pal 8. Who was the founder of the Khilji dynasty? (A) Jalal-ud-din Firuz Khilji (B) Alauddin Khilji (C) Ghiyath al-Din Khilji (D) Mahmud Shah Khilji 9. Who was the a former slave (Mamluk) of Muhammad Ghori and the first Sultan of Delhi? (A) Aram Shah (B) Qutb al-Din Aibak (C) Iltutmish (D) Sultan Ghari 10. Which battle fought between Muhammad-bin- Qasim and Dahir (the ruler of Sind)? (A) Battle of Rewar (B) Battle of Aror (C) Battle of Sindh (D) None of these 11. Who was the most prominent ruler of the Lodi Dynasty, founded Agra city? (A) Sikander Lodi (B) Ibrahim Lodi (C) Bahlul Lodi (D) Nasaruddin Lodi 12. Akbar’s biography Akbarnama was written by ______ in Persian. (A) Abul Fazl (B) Akbar (C) Abdul Rahim Khan-I-Khana (D) Birbal 13. The Battle of Hydaspes was fought between whom in 326 BC? (A) Alexander the Great and King Porus (B) Alexander the Great and Chandragupta Maurya (C) Alexander the Great and Bindusara (D)Ashoka and Alexander the Great 14. Who is known as the Second founder of the Maratha State? (A) Balaji Baji Rao II (B) Balaji Vishwanath (C) Balaji Baji Rao (D) Raghunathrao 15. In which year Shivaji Maharaj was crowned in Raigad and became "Chhatrapati"? (A) 1672 (B) 1656 (C) 1680 (D) 1674 16. What was the capital of Gurjara Pratihara dynasty? (A) Kannauj (B) Meerut (C) Awantika (D) Kashi 17. Which ancient Buddhist texts make refer to sixteen great Mahajanapadas? (A) Matsya Purana (B) Bhagavati Sutra (C) Anguttara Nikaya (D) Vishnu Puran 18. Who has convened the First Buddhist Council at Rajagriha just after the death of Buddha in 483 BC? (A) Bimbisara (B) Ajatasatru (C) Kalasoka (D) Dhana Nanda 19. The Hindustan Republican Association was founded in October 1924 in ______. (A) Kanpur (B) Lucknow (C) Delhi (D) Punjab 20. Which Rashtrakuta ruler built a rock-cut Kailash temple in Ellora? (A) Krishna I (B) Amoghavarsha (C) Krishna II (D) Dantidurga 21. Which of the following statements is true? I. The Portuguese established their first fortification in Cochin in 1503 with the aim of gaining a monopoly on the pepper and spice trade of the Eastern world. II. Albuquerque is considered the first real founder of the Portuguese Empire in India. Select the correct option (A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II 22. Which of the following statements is true? I. The 1857 mutiny when reached Delhi the sepoys from Meerut arrived at the gates of the Red Fort early in the morning on 11 May. II. The cultural history of India, the memorizing of chronicles, dynastic histories and Epictales was the profession of Maagadha. Select the correct option (A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II 23. Which of the following statements is true? I. Pre-colonial cities towns were often defined in opposition to rural areas. II. Pre-colonial cities they came to represent specific forms of economic activities and cultures. Select the correct option (A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II 24. Which of the following statements is true? I. The Delhi became a capital of British India 1912. II. The Delhi College was established 1795. Select the correct option. (A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II 25. Which of the following statements is true? I. The Brihadeeswarar Temple is a splendid example of Chola architecture, built by the Chola ruler Maharaja Rajaraja I. II. Brihadeeswarar Temple is a famous Hindu temple located in the Tanjore district of Tamil Nadu. Select the correct option (A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II History 1-(D) 2-(C) 3-(D) 4-(B) 5-(A) 6-(C) 7-(B) 8-(A) 9-(B) 10-(B) 11-(A) 12-(A) 13-(A) 14-(B) 15-(D) 16-(A) 17-(C) 18-(B) 19-(A) 20-(A) 21-(C) 22-(A) 23-(C) 24-(A) 25-(C) Geography 1. The smallest Union Territory of India (area wise) is (A) Andaman and Nicobar (B) Dadra and Nagar Haveli (C) Lakshadweep (D) Puducherry 2. Meenakshi Temple, is a historic Hindu temple located on the southern bank of the ____________ in the temple city of Madurai, Tamil Nadu, India. (A) Kaveri (B) Pennar (C) Vaigai (D) Amaravathi 3. Sundarban in India is a fine example of which among the following kind of forests? (A) Dry Forests (B) Tidal Forests (C) Wet Deciduous Forests (D) Deciduous Forests 4. The trade winds or easterlies are the permanent east-to-west prevailing winds that flow in the Earth's equatorial region (between 30°N and 30°S latitudes). The trade winds blow predominantly and from the southeast in the Southern Hemisphere, strengthening during the winter and when the Arctic oscillation is in its warm phase. The north-east trade winds cause which of the following in India? (A) Winter rains in north western India (B) Winter Rains in Chennai (C) Dust storm in the Thar Desert (D) Inclement conditions in the Indian Himalayas 5. The Lal Bahadur Shastri Dam is also known as Almatti Dam is a hydroelectric project on the Krishna River in North Karnataka, India which was completed in which year. (A) 2007 (B) 2005 (C) 2008 (D) None 6. Sundri is a small or medium-sized evergreen tree which is found in the inland zone. The Botanical name of Sundri is Heritiera littoralis Ait. The famous species of tree 'Sundari' is found in? (A) Mangrove forest (B) Tropical deciduous forests (C) Himalaya Mountains (D) Tropical Rainforest 7. Which of the following substances is mined in Odisha's Badamphad mines? (A) Hematite (B) Aurite (C) Dolomite (D) Bauxite 8. Although surface waves travel more slowly than S-waves, there are two basic kinds of surface waves: Rayleigh waves, also called ground roll, travel as ripples similar to those on the surface of water. So, the most destructive earthquake waves are? (A) primary (B) Secondary (C) Surface wave (D) None 9. A .......... is a large cauldron-like hollow that forms shortly after the emptying of a magma chamber/reservoir in a volcanic eruption. When large volumes of magma are erupted over a short time, structural support for the rock above the magma chamber is lost. (A) Caldera (B) Crater (C) Vent (D) Crust 10. Hyderabad stands on the banks of Musi river, which divides the historic old city and the new city. Himayat Sagar and Osman Sagar are dams built on it which used to act as source of water for Hyderabad. The river was known as Nerva during Qutub Shahi period. The Bhima River is a major river in Western India and South India. It flows southeast for 861 kilometres (535 mi) through Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Telangana states, Musi and Bhima are tributaries of which river? (A) Brahmaputra (B) Mahanadi (C) Kaveri (D) Krishna 11. Which of the following biosphere reserves was first established by the Government of India? (A) Sundarban Biosphere Reserve (B) Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve (C) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve (D) Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve 12. Nathu La Pass is located in the state of Sikkim. This famous pass is located in the India- China border was reopened in 2006. It forms a part of an offshoot of the ancient silk route. It is one of the trading borders posts between India and China. Shipki La Pass is located through Sutlej Gorge. It connects Himachal Pradesh with Tibet. It is India’s third border post for trade with China after Lipu Lekh and Nathula Pass. Name the passage which is used by pilgrims in Uttarakhand for Kailash Mansarovar Yatra? (A) Pensy La (B) Kurdung (C) Banihal Pass (D) Lipu Lekh 13. Nanda Devi is the second highest mountain in India after Kangchenjunga and the highest located entirely within the country. It is the 23rd-highest peak in the world. It was considered the highest mountain in the world before computations in 1808 proved Dhaulagiri to be higher. (A) Sikkim (B) Uttarakhand (C) Jammu and Kashmir (D) Assam 14. Baglihar Dam, also known as Baglihar Hydroelectric Power Project, is a run-of-theriver power project on the which River in the Doda district of the Indian state of Jammu and Kashmir. The first phase of the Baglihar Dam was completed in 2004. (A) Indus (B) Chenab (C) Sutlej (D) Ravi 15. Mājuli or Majoli is a river island in the Brahmaputra River,in which state and in 2016 it became the first island to be made a district in India. In which state is it? (A) Arunachal Pradesh (B) Assam (C) Nagaland (D) Uttar Pradesh 16. Which of the following passes is known as the gateway connecting Jammu and Srinagar? (A) Lanak-La Pass (B) Chang-La Pass (C) Banihal Pass (D) Aghil Pass 17. The ............ known by various names in other languages is Europe's second longest river, after the Volga. It is located in Central and Eastern Europe. so which river passes through maximum number of countries?/........... (A) Volga (B) Danube (C) Amazon (D) Rhine 18. Shifting Cultivation A form of agriculture, used especially in tropical Africa, in which an area of ground is cleared of vegetation and cultivated for a few years and then abandoned for a new area until its fertility has been naturally restored. ‘Shifting cultivation’ is also known as ____ in north-east India. (A) Ladang (B) Chena (C) Jhum (D) Logan 19. Which is an important road link between Srinagar on the side and Kargil and Leh on the other side. (A) Muling La (B) Shipki La (C) Zoji La (D) Qara Tag La 20. The Jorwe culture was a Chalcolithic archaeological culture which existed in large areas. In which state is it located. (A) Gujarat (B) Assam (C) Maharashtra (D) Bihar 21. Consider the following statements: 1. Water is present on 71 percent of the earth's surface. 2. India's area is almost 2.4 percent of the world. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 22. Consider the following statements: 1. Vikram Sarabhai Space Center is located in Sri Harikota. 2. The world's deepest ocean is the Indian Ocean. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 23. Consider the following statements: 1. Sri Penusila Narasimha Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Kerala. 2. Sri Lankamalleswara Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Andhra Pradesh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 24. Consider the following statements: 1. The Indian State of Sikkim does not share a border with neighbouring country Bangladesh. 2. The Indian State of Uttar pradesh does not share a border with neighbouring country Nepal. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 25. Consider the following statements: 1. Columbus discovered the northern America continent. 2. Victoria Falls is located on the Zambezi River. 3. The stream of California, Peru is a cold stream. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 Geography 1-(C) 2-(C) 3-(B) 4-(B) 5-(B) 6-(A) 7-(A) 8-(C) 9-(A) 10-(D) 11-(D) 12-(D) 13-(B) 14-(B) 15-(B) 16-(C) 17-(B) 18-(C) 19-(C) 20-(C) 21-(C) 22-(C) 23-(B) 24-(B) 25-(D) Polity 1. Who appoints Ad hoc Committee on Parliament— (A) Speaker of Lok Sabha (B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha (C) Both A & B (D) None of the above 2. In the event of the President and the Vice- President not being available, who among the following will perform the functions of the President? (A) Prime Minister (B) Speaker of the Lok Sabha (C) Chief Justice of India (D) Senior most Governor of a State 3. The Chief Justice of India is the head of the judiciary of India and the Supreme Court of India. The salary of the Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court: (A) cannot be reduced under any circumstances. (B) can be reduced by Parliament by a twothirds majority. (C) can be reduced during the national emergency. (D) can be reduced during the financial emergency. 4. The Central Government can legislate on a subject in the State List: (A) if the Parliament passes a resolution. (B) if the President issues an ordinance to this. (C) the Supreme Court grants necessary authority to the Parliament. (D) the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by two-thirds majority declaring that particular subject in the State list to be of national importance. 5. Which one of the following legislative powers of the State Council of Ministers has been wrongly listed? (A) it summons and prorogues the session of either or both the Houses of the State Legislature. (B) it determines the business and time-table of the State Legislature. (C) most of the important bills are introduced in the State Legislature by the Council of Ministers. (D) none of the above. 6. The subjects on which both the Centre and State Governments can legislate are contained in _____. (A) the Union List (B) the State List (C) Concurrent List (D) Residuary List 7. Name the first judge of the Supreme Court, against which the proposal of impeachment was presented in the Parliament of independent India. (A) Justice Ramswami (B) Justice Mahajan (C) Justice Veerswamy (D) Justice Subba Rao 8. In March 2019, Social Media Platforms and Internet and Mobile Association of India (IAMI) introduced what to the Election Commission of India for the general elections 2019. (A) Voluntary Code of Conduct (B) Precautionary Code (C) List of jobs to be done (D) Polling List Centre 9. India became a _______ after its constitution came into effect on 26 January 1950. (A) Democratic Republic. (B) Sovereign Democratic Republic. (C) Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic. (D) Sovereign Secular Socialist Democratic Republic. 10. Separation of the judiciary from the executive has been provided in which of the following Article of the Indian Constitution: (A) Article 48 (B) Article 52 (C) Article 50 (D) Article 49 11. Article 110 of Constitution of India deals with? (A) Ordinary Bill (B) Financial Bills (C) Money Bill (D) Constitution Amendment Bill 12. Liberty and Equality are two most valuable rights of the people. These constitute two basic pillars of democracy. Civil equality implies. (A) equality before law (B) equality of opportunity (C) equal distribution of wealth (D) None of these 13. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India is related to the Uniform Civil Code? (A) Article 44 (B) Article 46 (C) Article 45 (D) Article 43 14. In which part of the Indian Constitution, the fundamental duties are enshrined? (A) IV (B) IV A (C) IV B (D) V 15. Which article of Indian constitution deals with constitutional amendments? (A) Article 332 (B) Article 386 (C) Article 368 (D) None of the above 16. In which Constitutional Amendment Act, Goa was made a full-fledged State with a State assembly? (A) 43rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1977. (B) 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978. (C) 56th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1987. (D) 57th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1987. 17. The President of India has the discretionary power to- (A) impose the president rule (B) appoint the prime minister (C) appoint the chief election commissioner (D) declare financial emergency 18. The President can advance money to meet unforeseen expenses from the- (A) Consolidated Fund of India (B) Grants of the Central Government (C) Aid from the Union Government (D) Contingency Fund 19. Which one of the following was established with a definite provision under an Article of the Constitution of India? (A) Union Public Service Commission. (B) National Human Rights Commission. (C) Election Commission. (D) Central Vigilance Commission. 20. Which article empowers the President to impose Financial Emergency? (A) Article 356 (B) Article 360 (C) Article 364 (D) Article 352 21. Which of the following statement (s) is/are true? I. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the- Consolidated Fund of India must come from The Parliament of India. II. Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the Public Account. Select the correct option. (A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II 22. Which of the following statement (s) is/are true? I. When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the LokSabha the Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers. II. Under the Constitution of India, to develop the scientific temperng is not a fundamental duty. Select the correct option. (A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II 23. Which of the following statement (s) is/are true? I. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a Constitutional Right. II. The Election Commission of India is a fivemember body. Select the correct option. (A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II 24. Which of the following statement (s) is/are true? I. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency. II. Judicial Review implies the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders. Select the correct option. (A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II 25. Which of the following statement (s) is/are true? I. The consequences of the proclamation of the President's rule in a State removal of the Council of Ministers in the State. II. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the” Houses within six months. Select the correct option. (A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II Polity 1-(C) 2-(C) 3-(D) 4-(D) 5-(A) 6-(C) 7-(A) 8-(A) 9-(B) 10-(C) 11-(C) 12-(B) 13-(A) 14-(B) 15-(C) 16-(C) 17-(B) 18-(D) 19-(C) 20(B) 21-(A) 22-(C) 23-(A) 24-(B) 25-(B) Economics 1. Characteristic of India's population growth- (A) An increase in the ratio of females. (B) An increase in the birth rate and declining death rate. (C) Increasing number of old people. (D) An increase in rate of death. 2. The World Bank is an international financial institution that provides loans and grants to the governments it is also called as – (A) International Bank for Reconstruction and development. (B) Bank for 'liberation'. (C) International, rehabilation and development bank. (D) International Bank of Development. 3. What would be called a system of taxation under which the poorer classes are taxed at higher rates than the rich classes? (A) Regressive tax (B) Degressive tax (C) Proportional tax (D) Progressive tax 4. The contribution of IMF capital is made by (A) Deficit Financing (B) Credit (C) Borrowings (D) Member Nations 5. The Production of a commodity mostly through the natural process is an activity of– (A) Primary Sector (B) Secondary Sector (C) Tertiary Sector (D) Technology Sector 6. Where is the minting of coins in India? (A) Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata (B) Mumbai, Kolkata, Hyderabad, Noida (C) Mumbai, Delhi, Bangalore (D) Delhi, Kolkata, Hyderabad 7. What is the accounting year of the Reserve Bank of India? (A) January- December (B) March - february (C) July - June (D) December - Novermber 8. What situation would result if Government expenditure exceeds the Government revenue on Current Account? (A) Deficit budgeting (B) Performance-based budgeting (C) Surplus budgeting (D) Zero-based budgeting 9. Due to worldwide great depression, ‘New Deal’ was declared by_______? (A) Abhraham Lincon (B) Benzamin Frankllin (C) J.F. Kennedy (D) D. Roozwelt 10. The Relationship between rate of interest and consumption level was firstly estimated by– (A) Amartya Sen (B) Milton Freedman (C) J.F. Kennedy (D) Irwing Fischer 11. Disguised unemployment in India is mainly related to- (A) Agricultural sector (B) Factory sector (C) Urban Area (D) Rural Area 12. Labour Intensive Technique would get chosen in a _______? (A) Labour Surplus Economy (B) Capital Surplus Economy (C) Developed Economy (D) Developing Economy 13. The RBI plays a vital role in economic growth of the country and maintaining price stability. It was established on April 1, 1935. Where was the first Central office of RBI established? (A) New Delhi (B) Bengal (C) Calcutta (D) Mumbai 14. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank of the country. RBI is a statutory body. What do you understand by Statutory Body? (A) Statutory body or authority mans a nonconstitutional body which is set up by a parliament. (B) Statutory bodies are authorized to pass the law and take the decision on the behalf of state or country. (C) A statutory body does not include the corporations owned by shareholders. (D) All of above. 15. The Kelkar Committee (2002) was associated with. (A) Tax Structure Reforms (B) Development Finance Institutions (C) Agricultural Credit System (D) Development of Handlooms 16. Gross Domestic Product is the total value of goods produced and services rendered with in a country during a year is its Gross Domestic Product. Further, GDP is calculated at market price and is defined as GDP at market prices. Which of the following does not comes under GDP constituents? (A) Wages and salaries (B) Rent (C) Divident (D) Factor Cost 17. When did the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) come into existence? (A) 1973 (B) 1975 (C) 1980 (D) 1981 18. Money is anything which is generally acceptable by the people in exchange of goods and services and for settlement of debts. There are four forms of money i.e. Commodity, Fiat, Fiduciary, Commercial. So, what do you understand by Commodity money? (A) Money depends for its value on the confidence that it will be generally accepted as a medium of exchange. (B) Money is the simplest and, most likely, the oldest type of money. (C) Money gets its value from a government order. That means, the government declares fiat money to be legal tender, which requires all people and firms within the country to accept it as a means of payment. (D) Money can be described as claims against financial institutions that can be used to purchase goods or services 19. Money is defined as a generally accepted medium of exchange for goods and services. Virtually anything can be considered money, as long as it performs what we call the three major functions of money (i.e., medium of exchange, store of value, unit of account). There are four forms of money i.e. Commodity, Fiat, Fiduciary, Commercial Bank. So, what do you understand by Fiduciary money? (A) Money is the simplest and, most likely, the oldest type of money. (B) Money is not backed by any physical commodity. (C) Money depends for its value on the confidence that it will be generally accepted as a medium of exchange. (D) Money is created through what we call fractional reserve banking. 20. The Consumer Price Index (CPI) is an indicator that measures the average change in prices paid by consumers for a representative basket of goods and services over a set period. It is widely used as a measure of inflation, together with the GDP deflator. So, which one is wrong about CPI? (A) CPI is widely used as an economic indicator. It is the most widely used measure of inflation and, by proxy, of the effectiveness of the government’s economic policy. (B) The Consumer Price Index measures the average change in prices over time that consumers pay for a basket of goods and services. (C) CPI is widely used as an economic indicator. (D) All are correct 21. Competition is a condition where different economic firms seek to obtain a share of a limited good by varying the elements of the marketing mix: price, product, promotion and place. In classical economic thought, competition causes commercial firms to develop new products, services and technologies, which would give consumers greater selection and better products. So, what do you understand by the Monopolistic competition? (A) Monopolistic competition also refers to a market structure, where a large number of small firms compete against each other. (B) Describes a market structure that is dominated by only a small number of firms. (C) A market structure where a single firm controls the entire market (D) All of above 22. Which bank provides loan for reconstruction and development? (A) World Bank (B) IDA (C) IMF (D) IBRD 23. The statement "Economics is what it should be" refers to- (A) Normative Economics (B) Positive Economics (C) Monetary Economics (D) Fiscal Economics 24. Who said, “Economics is the Science of Wealth”? (A) Amartya Sen (B) Milton Friedman (C) Adam Smith (D) Janet Yellen 25. Formalized system of trading agreements with groups of countries is known as (A) Trading bloc (B) Trade ventures (C) Trade partners (D) Trade organizations Economics 1-(B) 2-(A) 3-(A) 4-(D) 5-(A) 6-(B) 7-(C) 8-(A) 9-(D) 10-(B) 11-(A) 12-(A) 13-(C) 14-(D) 15-(A) 16-(D) 17-(A) 18-(B) 19-(C) 20-(D) 21-(A) 22-(D) 23-(A) 24-(C) 25-(A) Physics 1. What is the unit of measure of a Electric Conductance? (A) Tesla (B) Mole (C) Henry (D) siemens 2. A device used for measuring small currents due to changing magnetic field is known as _____. (A) Voltmeter (B) Ammeter (C) Galvanometer (D) Potentiometer 3. Who introduced the first scientific theory of atomic structure? (A) Henry Moseley (B) John Dalton (C) Ernest Rutherford (D) Marie Curie 4. The direction of heat flow in a solid only depends on the __________ of its neighboring elements. (A) Weight (B) Volume (C) Temperature (D) Mass 5. If the star's remaining mass is greater than three times the mass of the Sun, the star contracts tremendously and becomes a ________. (A) Red giant star (B) Black hole (C) Neutron star (D) White Dwarf star 6. Why do birds not have respiratory trouble at the time of flying at high altitude? (A) They use less oxygen (B) They fly Inactively (C) They have extra air sacs (D) Their lungs are very large 7. Water boils at a lower temperature on top of mountain because: (A) There is less air pressure on the molecules (B) There is less Oxygen (C) There is high Carbon dioxide (D) There is high air pressure on the molecules 8. Which of the following has the highest value of specific heat? (A) Iron (B) Alcohol (C) Hydrogen (D) Water 9. The surface tension of water on adding detergent to it: (A) Increases (B) Dicreases (C) No Change (D) Becomes Zero 10. Waves that are required for long distance wireless communication are ________. (A) Microwaves (B) Ultraviolet rays (C) Infrared rays (D) Radio waves 11. The nature of fuse wire is: (A) A fuse wire has high resistance and low melting point. (B) A fuse wire has low resistance and high melting point. (C) A fuse wire has high resistance and high melting point. (D) A fuse wire has low resistance and low melting point. 12. What is the period of rotation of a geostationary satellite? (A) 365 days (B) 24 hours (C) 30 days (D) 48 hours 13. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the Curie point? (A) certain materials lose their permanent magnetic properties on curie point. (B) certain materials lose their properties on curie point. (C) certain materials lose their power on curie point. (D) certain materials change their magnetic properties on curie point. 14. If the mass of an object is 60 kgs, what will be its weight on the moon? (A) 90 N (B) 60 N (C) 98 N (D) 120 N 15. Which of the following is not an example of the Pascal law? (A) Hydraulic Jack (B) Hydraulic bus (C) Hydraulic brake (D) Hydraulic lift 16. Gravitational force is maximum at which of the following places? (A) The poles (B) The north pole (C) Equator (D) Northern Hemisphere 17. The different colours of different stars are due to the variation of ______. (A) Pressure (B) Density (C) Temperature (D) Radiation from them 18. Which layer of the sun can be seen with the naked eye during a total solar eclipse? (A) Transition Region (B) Chromosphere (C) Photosphere (D) Corona 19. Clear nights are colder than cloudy nights because of ______. (A) Conduction (B) Condensation (C) Radiation (D) Insolation 20. cryogenics is a science dealing with _______. (A) High temperature (B) Low temperature (C) Friction (D) Growth of Crystals 21. Which one of the following instruments is used to study dispersion of light? (A) Spectrometer (B) Gyroscope (C) Pyrometer (D) Speedometer 22. Which one of the following lenses should be used to correct the defect of astigmatism? (A) Convex lens (B) Concave lens (C) Cylindrical lens (D) Bifocal lens 23. In a Laser all the atoms emit the light waves of _______. (A) Same frequency (B) Same amplitude (C) Same phase (D) All of the above 24. Which type of mirrors used in the headlamp of cars? (A) Parabolic concave (B) Plane mirrors (C) Cylindrical convex (D) Cylindrical concave 25. The swimming pool to appear less deep than the actual depth is because: (A) Refraction (B) Light scattering (C) Reflection (D) Total internal reflection Physics 1-(D) 2-(C) 3-(B) 4-(C) 5-(B) 6-(C) 7-(A) 8-(D) 9-(B) 10-(A) 11-(D) 12-(B) 13-(B) 14-(C) 15-(B) 16-(A) 17-(C) 18-(D) 19-(C) 20-(B) 21-(A) 22-(C) 23-(D) 24-(A) 25-(A) Chemistry 1. What we get when formaldehyde and potassium hydroxide is hot. (A) Acetylene (B) Methyl alcohol (C) Methane (D) Ethyl formate 2. Which is the Important ore of aluminum? (A) bauxite (B) cryolite (C) fluorspar (D) haematite 3. Which metal deficiency causes itai-itai disease? (A) Cadmium (B) Chromium (C) Cobalt (D) Copper 4. Which fungus is used in the wine industry. (A) Mushroom (B) Candida Aibicans (C) Yeast (D) Rhizopus 5. Who is called a brown coal? (A) Anthracite (B) Bituminous (C) Coke (D) Lignite 6. What is the main source of naphthalene? (A) Coaltar (B) Diesel (C) Charcoal (D) Camphor 7. Which of the following organic compounds has the smell of fruit? (A) Alcohol (B) Aldehyde (C) Ester (D) Ether 8. Which is used in welding broken pieces of iron rails and machine parts? (A) Aluminium sulphate (B) Solder (C) Aluminium powder (D) None of the above 9. Which of the following is a supercooled liquid? (A) Ice-cream (B) Ammonia (C) Glass (D) Wood 10. Which one of the following elements is the poorest conductor of heat. (A) sodium (B) lead (C) zinc (D) mercury 11. What is used in nuclear reactor as a moderator. It is also known as Heavy Water? (A) Gelatine (B) Tritium (C) Protium (D) Deuterium Oxide 12. The ________ Process is used to synthesized Ammonia (NH3). (A) Haber process (B) Electrolysis (C) Catalysis process (D) Alkylation process 13. Which is a chemical compound known as baryta water? (A) Zinc oxide (B) Zinc hydroxide (C) Barium hydroxide (D) Barium oxide 14. Gypsum is a soft sulfate mineral composed of calcium sulfate dihydrate, with the chemical formula CaSO4•2H2O. It is widely mined and is used as a fertilizer and as the main constituent in many forms of plaster, blackboard/sidewalk chalk, and drywall. Gypsum is added to clinker during cement manufacturing to. (A) Decrease the rate of setting of cement (B) Bind the particles of calcium silicate (C) Facilitate the formation of colloidal gel (D) Impart strength to cement 15. Which one among the following will you put into pure water in order to pass electric current through it? (A) Kerosene (B) Mustard oil (C) Lemon juice (D) Sugar 16. Who is regarded as father of modern chemistry? (A) Ruterford (B) Einstein (C) Lavoisier (D) C. V. Raman 17. The Alkali metals are called reducing agents. This implies that__: (A) They easily capture electrons (B) They are not stable at room temperature (C) They easily lose electrons (D) They don’t act with dilute acids 18. What is the fourth state of matter called? (A) Solid (B) Liquid (C) Gas (D) Plasma 19. From which one among the following water source, the water is likely to be contaminated with fluoride? (A) Ground water (B) River water (C) Pond water (D) Rain water 20. What is the main constituent of a pearl? (A) Calcium carbonate and magnesium carbonate. (B) Calcium sulphate only. (C) Calcium oxide and calcium sulphate. (D) Calcium carbonate only. 21. Consider the following statements: 1. German silver is an alloy of copper, zinc, and nickel. 2. Stainless steel is an element. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 22. Consider the following statements: 1. Zinc displaces copper and silver from solutions of their salts. 2. Zinc has a lower oxidation potential than copper and silver. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 23. Consider the following statements: 1. The solutions that follow Raoult's law are called ideal solutions. 2. The solutions that do not follow the Raoult’s law, is called Non-ideal solution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 24. Consider the following statements: 1. Metals react with sodium hydroxide to produce hydrogen gas. 2. Calcium hydroxide base is present in lime water. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 25. Consider the following statements: 1. Galena is the mineral of aluminum. 2. Sulphuric acid is used in the production of explosives. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Chemistry 1-(B) 2-(A) 3-(A) 4-(C) 5-(D) 6-(A) 7-(C) 8-(C) 9-(C) 10-(A) 11-(D) 12-(A) 13-(C) 14-(A) 15-(C) 16-(C) 17-(C) 18-(D) 19-(A) 20-(D) 21-(D) 22-(D) 23-(C) 24-(C) 25-(A) Biology 1. Yeast are single-celled microorganisms is not used in the production of - (A) Alcohal (B) Sugar (C) Cake (D) Bread 2. Which of the following is not an nucleobases of DNA. (A) Adenine (B) Guanine (C) Uracil (D) Cytosine 3. Which of the following is the most advanced group of algae. (A) Rhodophyta (B) Phaeophyta (C) Chlorophyta (D) Cyanophyta 4. Which of the following was most influential upon Darwin’s formulation of theory of natural selection. (A) Malthus’s essay on population (B) Wallace’s paper on survival (C) De Vries concept of mutation (D) Lamarck’s on inheritance of acquired characters 5. "Survival of the fittest‟ is a famous phrase of- (A) Hugo de Vries (B) Charles Darwin (C) Herbert Spencer (D) Jean Baptiste Lamarck 6. Russian scientist who proposed the theory of origin of life was. (A) Haldane (B) Oparin (C) Miller (D) Gregor Mendel 7. Biologists who study the sequences of organisms in the fossil record are. (A) Palaeobiologists (B) Systematists (C) Misologists (D) Taxonomists 8. _____ era is known as golden age of reptiles as reptiles became dominant during this period. (A) Late Paleozoic (B) Cenozoic (C) Proterozoic (D) Mesozoic 9. What is the connecting link between reptiles and birds? (A) Archaeopteryx (B) Proterospongia (C) Proterospongia (D) None of these 10. Presence of gill slits in the embryo of vertebrates supports the theory of:- (A) Biogenesis (B) Recapitulation (C) Organic evolution (D) Metamorphosis 11. The book named “Philosophic zoologique” was published in 1809 and was written by: (A) De Vries (B) Lamarck (C) Darwin (D) Mendel 12. Mesophyll tissue is well differentiated into spongy tissue and palisade tissue in- (A) Dicot leaves (B) Ophytic stem (C) Hydrophytic stem (D) Monocot leaves 13. What is the other name for the cork tissue? (A) Phellogen (B) Phelloderm (C) Phellem (D) Periderm 14. Green leaves prepare food for plants by using water and _______ in the presence of sunlight. (A) Carbon dioxide (B) Oxyzen (C) Nitrogen (D) Methene 15. Which type of tissue forms the inner lining of a blood vessel? (A) Epithelial (B) Connective (C) Muscle (D) Nervous 16. The actively dividing layer of columnar cells in the epidermis of man is called as the _____. (A) Stratum granulosum (B) Stratum lucidum (C) Stratum germinativum (D) Stratum comeum 17. Which of the following tissue has matrix, which is the source of its structural and functional (A) Connective tissue (B) Muscular tissue (C) Nervous tissue (D) Epithelial tissue 18. The white fibrous tissue occurs in. (A) Ligaments (B) Cartilage (C) Tendons (D) Bone 19. Which one of the following blood pigments contains copper? (A) Haemoerythrin (B) Haemocyanin (C) Chlorocruorin (D) Haemoglobin 20. The basic unit of all living organisms is- (A) A drop of blood (B) A molecule of glucose (C) A set of proteins (D) A cell 21. Which of the following statement (s) is/are true? I. Insulin dependent diabetes is caused by the degeneration of beta cells due to a gene set. II. Micro chips are developed by employing techniques of bio-technology. Select the correct option. (A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II 22. Which of the following statement (s) is/are true? I. Gene therapy is used to treat defects in Somatic cell. II. Sensor converts biological signal into an electrical signal. Select the correct option. (A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II 23. Which of the following statement (s) is/are true? I. Bio-chemically significant enzymes are derived from microbes. II. Amylase is derived from Amyloproteins of bacteria. Select the correct option. (A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II 24. Which of the following statement (s) is/are true? I. Adour, freshness and taste of food can be measured by using Bio-sensor. II. Bio-technology is so vast and has great scope for different fields like agriculture, medicine, food industry. Select the correct option. (A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II 25. Which of the following statement (s) is/are true? I. Antibiotics are employed to kill the infectious germs and cure a disease. II. A vitamin is an organic molecule. Select the correct option. (A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II Biology 1-(B) 2-(C) 3-(C) 4-(A) 5-(C) 6-(B) 7-(A) 8-(D) 9-(A) 10-(B) 11-(B) 12-(A) 13-(C) 14-(A) 15-(A) 16-(C) 17-(A) 18-(C) 19-(B) 20-(D) 21-(B) 22-(C) 23-(C) 24-(C) 25-(C)