GS Question Bank(500+ Que)Aug-2023
1. The SC has observed as a part of judicial order in a petition filed by the State of Telangana complaining that the Governor has kept pending several important Bills sent. Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?
(1) Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule
(2) Appointing the Ministers
(3) Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (2) and (1)
(C) Only (3) and (2)
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A)
Exp: The Governor performs the same duties as the President, but for the State. The discretionary powers of the Governor include:- He/She has the discretion to choose a candidate for the chief minister when no party gets a clear majority. He/She can withhold his assent to a bill and send it to the President for his approval. He/She can reserve certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India. He/She can override the advice of the council of ministers if specifically permitted by the President during emergency rule per Article 353. Article 356 also states that the President can invoke President rule in a state on the report of the governor. The Governor appoints Chief Minister and other Ministers as per Article 164 and the Advocate General for the State as per Article 165. But this is not a part of discretionary powers.
2. The Indian government has implemented several measures to promote balanced fertilisation. Despite these efforts, the consumption of urea has risen, leading to imbalanced fertilisation, decreased nitrogen use efficiency, and a decline in crop yield response to fertiliser use. With reference to chemical fertilizers in India, consider the following statements –
(1) At present, the retail price of chemical fertilizers is market-driven and not administered by the Government.
(2) Ammonia, which is an input of urea, is produced from natural gas.
(3) Sulphur, which is a raw material for phosphoric acid fertilizer, is a by-product of oil refineries.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (2)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (3) and (1)
(D) All are correct
Ans: (B)
Exp: The Union Government subsidies the urea manufacturing units. For the cost of transportation to facilitate the availability of urea at the same maximum retail price all over the country. Also, the Government is subsidizing fertilizers for their availability at reasonable prices for agricultural purposes. Urea (NH2CONH2) is produced from ammonia (NH3) and gaseous carbon dioxide (CO2) at high pressure and relatively high temperature. Sulphur is a by-product of processing natural gas and refining high-sulfur crude oils. And Sulphur is a raw material for phosphoric acid fertilizer.
3. Recently, the Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage (INTACH) has urged the government to conserve the 600-year-old ‘Vilakkumadom’, at the Sree Mahavishnu Temple at Thirunelli, Kerala. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?
(1) To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
(2) To protect the weaker sections from social injustice
(3) To develop the scientific temper and the spirit of inquiry
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (2)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (3) and (1)
(D) All are correct
Ans: (C) Exp:
Part IV A of the Indian constitution constitutes fundamental duties for citizens under A 51A. The 11 fundamental duties are as followsIt shall be the duty of every citizen of India — to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem; to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom; to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India; to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so; to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women; to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture; to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures; to develop the scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform; to safeguard public property and to abjure violence; to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement; who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years.
4. Recently, there has been an increasing consensus in Europe and US that Greedflation is driving the rising cost of living rather than just Inflation. With reference to Indian economy, demand-pull inflation can be caused/increased by which of the following?
(1) Expansionary policies
(2) Fiscal stimulus
(3) Inflation-indexing of wages
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) Only (2) and (3)
(D) None of the above
Ans: (B)
Exp: Demand-pull inflation is mainly caused due to:- Depreciation of rupee. Low unemployment rate. Increased borrowing. Due to fiscal stimulus – It includes increased government consumption or lowering of taxes. When the government spends more freely, prices go up. Expansionary policies lead to more economic activity via low-interest rates, more money with the public etc.
5. Indian Prime Minister in his recent address expressed his support for the implementation of a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) in India, stating that India cannot function efficiently with a system of “separate laws for separate communities”. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India –
(1) Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code
(2) Organising village Panchayats
(3) Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) Only (2) and (3)
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C) Exp: The Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy are Organizing village Panchayats and Promoting cottage industries in rural areas. The Directive Principles of the State Policy (DPSPs) lay down the guidelines for the state and are reflections of the overall objectives laid down in the Preamble of the Constitution. DPSPs are incorporated to attain the ultimate ideals of preamble i.e. Justice, Liberty, Equality, and fraternity. The Directive Principles of State Policy of India are the guidelines or 15 principles given to the federal institutes governing the State of India, to be kept in citation while framing laws and policies.
6. On the occasion of International MSME Day,2023, the Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSME) organized the ‘Udyami Bharat-MSME Day’ event. What is/are the recent policy initiative(s)of Government of India to promote the growth of the manufacturing sector?
(1) Setting up of National Investment and Manufacturing Zones
(2) Providing the benefit of ‘single window clearance’
(3) Establishing the Technology Acquisition and Development Fund
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) Only (2) and (3)
(D) All of the above
Ans: (D)
Exp: The National Manufacturing Policy was approved by the Government in October 2011. The major objectives of the policy are enhancing the share of manufacturing in the gross domestic product (GDP) to 25 per cent and creating an additional 100 million jobs over a decade or so. The NMP provides for the promotion of clusters and aggregation, especially through the creation of National Investment and Manufacturing Zones (NIMZs). Out of twelve NIMZs so far announced, eight are along the DMIC. Advisory to States on simplification & rationalization of business regulations and skill development. Constitution of the approval/monitoring mechanism under the policy. Scheme prepared under NMP on Technology Acquisition and Development Fund (TADF). Initiating the process of simplification and rationalization of state-level business regulations and developing single-window clearance.
7. Recently, some sportspersons made allegations of sexual harassment against WFI (Wrestling Federation of India) president. Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000 –
(1) American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award.
(2) The award has been received mostly by ‘Formula One’ players so far.
(3) Roger Federer received this award a maximum number of times compared to others.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (2) and (1)
(C) Only (3) and (2)
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A)
Exp: The Laureus World Sports Awards is the premier global sporting awards. First held in 2000, the annual event honours the greatest and most inspirational sporting triumphs of the year and showcases the work of Laureus Sport for Good. American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award. The award has been received mostly by Men’s Football Team (6 times) players so far. Roger Federer (5 times) has received this award, the maximum number of times compared to others followed by Usain Bolt (4 times) and Novak Djokovic (4 times).
8. FIBA, the international governing body of basketball, has chosen to ban Russia men’s basketball from the 2024 Summer Olympics in Paris. Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics –
(1) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’.
(2) Sport Climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate and Baseball are included in this Olympics.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1)
(B) (2) and (1)
(C) Only (2)
(D) None are correct
Ans: (C)
Exp: The Games of the 32nd Summer Olympiad (Tokyo 2020) were held from 23 July to 8 August 2021. The official motto for Olympics 2020 was “United by Emotion”. A total of 46 Olympic Sports were contested at the Tokyo 2020 Games including Rugby, Sport Climbing, Fencing, Football, Skateboarding, Handball, Surfing, Karate, Baseball, among others.
9. In the last two financial years, only 329 claims for accident insurance cover provided to bank account holders under the Pradhan Mantri JanDhan Yojana (PMJDY) have been settled out of the 647 claims that were filed. Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana –
(1) Under the scheme, a Basic Savings Bank Deposit (BSBD) account can be opened in any bank.
(2) There is no requirement to maintain any minimum balance in PMJDY accounts.
(3) Visa Debit card is provided to the PMJDY account holder.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (2)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (3) and (1)
(D) All are correct
Ans: (A)
Exp: PMJDY – National Mission for Financial Inclusion, aims to ensure access to financial services, namely, basic savings & deposit accounts, remittance, credit, insurance, pension in an affordable manner. Under the scheme, a Basic Savings Bank Deposit (BSBD) account can be opened in any bank branch or Business Correspondent (Bank Mitra) outlet, by persons not having any other account. There is no requirement to maintain any minimum balance in PMJDY accounts and interest is earned on the deposit in PMJDY accounts. Rupay Debit card is provided to the PMJDY account holder. An overdraft (OD) facility up to Rs 10,000 to eligible account holders is available.
10. The Summit for a New Global Financing Pact was recently held in Paris with an objective of tackling the lack of financial support for developing countries. Which of the following statements regarding ‘Green Climate Fund’ is/are correct?
(1) It is intended to assist the developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change.
(2) It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD, Asian Development Bank and World Bank.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) Only (2)
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A) Exp: The Green Climate Fund (GCF) is a fund within the framework of the UNFCCC. It was founded as a mechanism to redistribute money from the developed to the developing world, in order to assist the developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change. The Fund is governed and supervised by a Board that will have full responsibility for funding decisions and that receives the guidance of the COP.
11. Solar project in Turkey has threatened to destroy 30,000 olive trees. With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements –
(1) India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units. (2) The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) Only (2)
(D) None of the above
Ans: (D)
Exp: Not a single silicon chip for solar energy is manufactured in India. Every solar panel which is made in India is assembled while all the material comes other countries. India is yet to develop semiconductor clusters. India plans to invest $480 million to set up its first unit for manufacturing solar silicon cells that will feed a project to build the world’s largest solar power plant. Central Electricity Regulatory Commission regulate the tariff of generating companies owned or controlled by the Central Government. Solar Energy Corporation of India Limited (SECI) has a power trading license
12. Kharchi Puja, a significant festival celebrated in the state of Tripura, has recently garnered attention in the news. Consider the following pairs -.
(1) Chapchar Kut festival – Mizoram
(2) Khongjom Parba ballad – Manipur
(3) Thang-Ta dance – Sikkim
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) Only (2) and (3)
(D) None of the above
Ans: (B)
Exp: Chapchar Kut is the biggest festival of the Mizos and is celebrated in March after completion of jhum operation. It is a spring festival. Khongjom Parba is a style of ballad singing from Manipur using Dholak (drum) which depicts stories of the heroic battle fought by Manipuris against the mighty British Empire in 1891. It is one of the most popular musical art forms of Manipur inciting the spirit of patriotism and nationalism among the people at one time. Thang-Ta is a martial dance of Manipur. Manipur dance has a large repertoire, however, the most popular forms are the Ras, the Sankirtana and the Thang-Ta. Thang-ta dance of Manipur evolved from the martial arts drills promoted by the kings of Manipur.
13. The LHC has undergone upgrades to increase its sensitivity and accuracy, allowing scientists to study particles with even higher energy. The efforts to detect the existence of Higgs boson particle have become frequent news in the recent past. What is/are the importance of discovering this particle?
(1) It will enable us to understand as to why elementary particles have mass.
(2) It will enable us to create better fuels for nuclear fission.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1)
(B) (2) and (1)
(C) Only (2)
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A)
Exp: The Higgs particle was discovered by British physicist Peter Higgs in the 1960s. It is also known as the “God Particle”. This was proposed to understand as to why elementary particles have mass. Higgs- Boson particle is a part of invisible energy field i.e. Higgs field in the universe. This is a fundamental particle which provide mass to other particles existing in the universe, resulting in the creation of stars, planets, etc. When the Higgs field doesn’t provide mass to particles then there will be no gravity and no life. Higgs-Boson particle is named after 2 scientists those are Peter Higgs and Satyendra Nath Bose.
14. Recently, the Indian Space Association (ISpA) in association with the Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO) organized the Indian DefSpace Symposium which focuses on the growing government and military focus on the space domain and explores ways to enhance India’s space capabilities. Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS) –
(1) Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy.
(2) IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1)
(B) (2) and (1)
(C) Only (2)
(D) None are correct
Ans: (C)
Exp: The “Indian Ocean Naval Symposium” (IONS) is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime cooperation among navies of the littoral States of the Indian Ocean Region by providing an open and inclusive forum for discussion of regionally relevant maritime issues. It provides a forum to increase maritime security cooperation, and promote friendly relationships among the member nations. The inaugural IONS-2008 was held in New Delhi, India in Feburary, 2008. The Chief of the Naval Staff, Indian Navy was designated as the Chairman of IONS for the period 2008-10.
15. Recently, India’s retail inflation rate declined to 5.66%, below the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) upper target of 6% in March 2023, primarily due to a decrease in food prices, especially for vegetables. With reference to Indian economy, demand-pull inflation can be caused/increased by which of the following?
(1) Expansionary policies
(2) Fiscal stimulus
(3) Inflation-indexing of wages
(4) Higher purchasing power
(5) Rising interest rates Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1, 2 and 4 only
(B) 3, 4 and 5 only
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: (A)
Exp: Demand-pull inflation is mainly caused due to:- Depreciation of rupee. Low unemployment rate. Increased borrowing. Due to fiscal stimulus – It includes increased government consumption or lowering of taxes. When the government spends more freely, prices go up. Expansionary policies lead to more economic activity via low-interest rates, more money with the public etc. Asset inflation or Increase in Forex reserves– A sudden rise in exports forces a depreciation of the currencies involved. Higher purchasing Power – When consumers feel confident, they spend more and take on more debt. This leads to a steady increase in demand, which means higher prices. The rising interest rate – It decreases the money supply in the economy. This may result in a credit crunch in the economy. It is costlier to borrow money in the economy and it leads to a decreased money supply. So, it can not cause demand-pull inflation in the economy. Inflation-indexing wages – Inflation indexing wages, wages in the economy is linked to inflation which means wage moves as inflation changes in the economy. Such indexing is provided to reduce the effect of inflation on wages. For example – a worker is getting 100 rs as a wage and inflation in the economy increases to 5%, so the wage of the worker increases by 5% i.e. 105. So effective change in the wages is zero and it does not increase/decrease purchasing power. So, it can not lead to a demand to pull inflation in the economy.
16. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), approved the PM-PRANAM scheme, aimed at restoring and nurturing Mother Earth through the use of bio fertilizers. With reference to the current trends in the cultivation of sugarcane in India, consider the following statements –
(1) A substantial saving in seed material is made when ‘bud chip settlings’ are raised in a nurse, and transplanted in the main field.
(2) If bad weather conditions prevail when setts are directly planted, single-budded setts have better survival as compared to large setts
(3) Sugarcane can be cultivated using settlings prepared from tissue culture. Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) Only (2) and (3)
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A)
Exp: Transplanting sugarcane single-bud/ bud-chip settlings can save seed cane requirement up to 80 percent besides providing healthy plants and good field establishment. It is less expensive and labour saving in comparison with conventional sett planting. When direct planting of setts is done, the germination percentage is better with many buds setts as compared to setts with single-budded. If bad weather conditions prevail when setts are directly planted, large setts have better survival as compared to single-budded ones. Tissue culture or vegetative propagation can be used to germinate and grow these settlings which can be transplanted in the field later.
17. Biofertilizer scheme gets Cabinet nod; sugarcane FRP hiked. Consider the following organisms –
(1) Agaricus
(2) Nostoc
(3) Spirogyra
Which of the above is/are used as biofertilizers?
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) Only (2)
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C)
Exp: Nostoc is a species of blue-green algae used as bio fertilizer. Spirogyra is a non-living nitrogen fixing algae. Its inoculations serves as organic biomass for the growing rice plants. While agaricus is a genus of mushrooms containing both edible and poisonous species.
18.India celebrated National Statistics Day on June 29th, commemorating the birthday of Prof. Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis, renowned as the ‘Plan Man’ of India. Consider the following statements regarding PC Mahalanobis –
(1) In 1931, he founded the Indian Statistical Institute (ISI) in Delhi.
(2) He also founded Sankhya, the first Indian statistical journal, in 1933.
(3) In 1955, he was appointed as a member of the Planning Commission of India.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) Only (2) and (3)
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C)
Exp: In 1931, he founded the Indian Statistical Institute (ISI) in Calcutta, with the aim of promoting research and education in statistics and related disciplines. He also founded Sankhya, the first Indian statistical journal, in 1933. In 1955, he was appointed as a member of the Planning Commission of India by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru. He played a key role in designing India’s strategy for industrialisation and economic development in the Second Five-Year Plan (1956-61), also known as Mahalanobis Plan based on his own mathematical model that emphasized heavy industries and capital goods.
19. Atal Innovation Mission launched the phase 1 of the 2nd edition of the Atal New India Challenge (ANIC 2.0). Consider the following statements regarding major iof Atal Innovation Mission –
(1) Atal Tinkering Labs: These are creating problem solving mindset across schools in India.
(2) Atal Research and Innovation for Small Enterprises (ARISE): To stimulate innovation and research in the MSME industry.
(3) Atal New India Challenges: Fostering world class startups and adding a new dimension to the incubator model.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (2) and (1)
(C) Only (3) and (2)
(D) None of the above
Ans: (B)
Exp: Major Initiatives – Atal Tinkering Labs: These are creating problem solving mindset across schools in India. Atal Incubation Centers: Fostering world class startups and adding a new dimension to the incubator model. Atal New India Challenges: Fostering product innovations and aligning them to the needs of various sectors/ministries. Mentor India Campaign: A national mentor network in collaboration with the public sector, corporates and institutions, to support all the initiatives of the mission. Atal Community Innovation Center: To stimulate community centric innovation and ideas in the unserved/underserved regions of the country including Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities. Atal Research and Innovation for Small Enterprises (ARISE): To stimulate innovation and research in the MSME industry.
20. Recently, the Ministry of Culture has ordered the restoration of Historic Anang Tal lake in South Delhi. Consider the following statements regarding Tomar Dynasty –
(1) Anangpal II, popularly known as Anangpal Tomar, belonged to the Tomar dynasty.
(2) Tomara dynasty is one of the minor early medieval ruling houses of northern India.
(3) Anangpal Tomar II was succeeded by his grandson Prithviraj Chauhan. Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (2)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (3) and (1)
(D) All are correct
Ans: (D)
Exp: Anangpal II, popularly known as Anangpal Tomar, belonged to the Tomar dynasty. He was the founder of Dhillika Puri, which eventually became Delhi. Evidence about the early history of Delhi is inscribed on the iron pillar of Masjid Quwaatul Islam, adjacent to Qutub Minar. Anangpal Tomar II was succeeded by his grandson Prithviraj Chauhan. Delhi Sultanate was established in 1192 after Prithviraj Chauhan’s defeat in the Battle of Tarain (present-day Haryana) by the Ghurid forces. Tomara dynasty is one of the minor early medieval ruling houses of northern India.
21.The Prime Minister paid tributes to Jagadguru Basaveshwara (Basavanna) on the sacred occasion of Basava Jayanti. Consider the following statements regarding Basavana –
(1) Basaveshwara was born in Bagevadi (of undivided Bijapur district in Karnataka) in 1131 AD.
(2) He was the founder of Lingayatism.
(3) Basaveshwara established the Anubhava Mantapa, which was a common forum for all to discuss.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (2)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (3) and (1)
(D) All are correct
Ans: (D)
Exp: Basaveshwara was born in Bagevadi (of undivided Bijapur district in Karnataka) in 1131 AD. A 12th-century poet and philosopher, who is celebrated and held in high regard, especially by the Lingayat community, as he was the founder of Lingayatism. The term Lingayat denotes a person who wears a personal linga, an iconic form of God Shiva, on the body which is received during the initiation ceremony. Basaveshwara established the Anubhava Mantapa, which was a common forum for all to discuss the prevailing problems of socio, economic and political strata including religious and spiritual principles along with personal problems.
22.Recently, in response to the Food Corporation of India’s (FCI) imposition of quantity restrictions and denial of states’ participation in the Open Market Sale Scheme (OMSS), states have been exploring alternative methods to procure wheat and rice. With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the following statements –
(1) The families coming under the category of ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ only are eligible to receive subsidised food grains.
(2) The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) Only (2)
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C)
Exp: Some of the provisions of the National Food Security Act, 2013 are as follows: The Act provides for coverage of up to 75% of the rural population and up to 50% of the urban population for receiving subsidized foodgrains under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS), thus covering about two-thirds of the population. It provides that the eldest woman of the household of age 18 years or above is to be the head of the household for the purpose of issuing ration cards. Besides meals to pregnant women and lactating mothers during pregnancy and six months after childbirth, such women will also be entitled to receive maternity benefit of not less than Rs. 6,000. The nutritional and feeding norms for supplementary nutrition are 500 calories and 12- 15 grams of protein of children between the ages of 6 months to 6 years, 600 (not 1600) calories and 18-20 grams of protein to pregnant and nursing mothers and 800 calories and 20-25 gm of protein to malnourished children.
23. India witnessed significant advancements in its biodiversity knowledge in the year 2022 with the addition of numerous animal and plant species to its faunal and floral databases. Biodiversity forms the basis for human existence in the following ways –
(1) Soil formation
(2) Prevention of soil erosion
(3) Recycling of waste Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) Only (2) and (3)
(D) All of the above
Ans: (D)
Exp: Soil is the basis for all terrestrial lives including humans. Thus, through the ways of Soil formation and Prevention of soil erosion, Biodiversity forms the basis of human existence. Biological diversity performs the vital function of recycling waste which is necessary for the maintenance of Human life. Pollination of crops is critical for food production and human livelihoods. In these ways, Biodiversity forms the basis of human existence.
24. Recently, the Union Minister of State for Panchayati Raj released the Report on Panchayat Development Index (PDI) at the National Workshop on Panchayat Development Index in New Delhi. The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?
(1) People’s participation in development
(2) Political accountability
(3) Democratic decentralization Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) Only (2) and (3)
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A)
Exp: The most fundamental objective of the Panchayati Raj system is to ensure people’s participation in development and democratic decentralization. Establishment of Panchayati Raj Institutions does not automatically lead to political accountability. Financial mobilization is not the fundamental objective of Panchayati Raj, although it seeks to transfer finances and resources to the grass root government.
25. On the World Press Freedom Day has been celerated on 3rd May. Consider the following statements regarding World Press Freedom Day –
(1) The day was proclaimed by the UN General Assembly in 1993.
(2) The day also marks the 1974 Windhoek Declaration (adopted by UNESCO).
(3) It aimed towards the “development of a free, independent and pluralistic press”.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (2) and (1)
(C) Only (3) and (2)
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A)
Exp: World Press Freedom Day was proclaimed by the UN General Assembly in 1993, following the recommendation of UNESCO’s General Conference in 1991. The day also marks the 1991 Windhoek Declaration (adopted by UNESCO). It aimed towards the “development of a free, independent and pluralistic press”. Theme for 2022: Journalism under digital siege
26. Recently, the Election Commission issued notice to Jharkhand chief minister on a reference that he held an “office of profit” by granting a mining lease to himself in 2021. Consider the following statements –
(1) The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
(2) The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
3) The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (2)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (3) and (1)
(D) All are correct
Ans: (A)
Exp: The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification, like: Ministers of State and Deputy Ministers, Parliamentary Secretaries and Parliamentary Under Secretaries, Deputy Chief Whips in Parliament, Vice-Chancellors of Universities, Officers in the National Cadet Corps, and the Territorial Army, and Chairman and members of Advisory Committees set up by the Government when they are not entitled to any fee or remuneration other than compensatory, etc. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Act has been amended 5 times, since its formulation, in the years 1960, 1992, 1993, 2006 and 2013. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Constitution of India does not clearly define what constitutes an office of profit, but the definition has evolved over the years with interpretations made in various court judgments.
27. The Government has sought more time to submit its written response to petitions challenging the constitutional validity of Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code dealing with the offense of sedition. Consider the following statements regarding Sedition Law –
(1) Sedition laws were enacted in 17th century England.
(2) The law was originally drafted in 1837 by Thomas Macaulay.
(3) Sedition is a crime under Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (2)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (3) and (1)
(D) All are correct
Ans: (D)
Exp: Sedition laws were enacted in 17th century England when lawmakers believed that only good opinions of the government should survive, as bad opinions were detrimental to the government and monarchy. The law was originally drafted in 1837 by Thomas Macaulay, the British historian-politician, but was inexplicably omitted when the Indian Penal Code (IPC) was enacted in 1860. Section 124A was inserted in 1870 by an amendment introduced by Sir James Stephen when it felt the need for a specific section to deal with the offence. Today the Sedition is a crime under Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC).
28. The International Seabed Authority (ISA) is preparing to allow Deep Sea Mining in the International Seabed, including mining for minerals needed for Green Energy. Consider the following statements –
(1) The Global Ocean Commission grants licences for seabed exploration and mining in international waters.
(2) India has received licences for seabed mineral exploration in international waters UGUST 2023 Current Affairs by Ramanshu GS Classes ramanshugsclasses.com Ramanshu G.S classes @RamanshuGsclasses support@ramanshugsclasses.
com 54 (3) ‘Rare earth minerals’ are present on the seafloor in international waters. Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) Only (2) and (3)
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C)
Exp: Global Ocean Commission was an international initiative between 2013 and 2016 to raise awareness, and promote action to address the degradation of the ocean and help restore it to full health and productivity. States Parties to UNCLOS organize and control all mineral-resources-related activities through ISA. India has been allotted a site of 75,000 square kilometres in the Central Indian Ocean Basin (CIOB) by the International Seabed Authority (ISA) for the exploitation of Polymetallic Nodules (PMN). In 2002, India signed a contract with the ISA and after complete resource analysis of the seabed 50 per cent was surrendered and the country retained an area of 75,000 sq km. It has been estimated that 380 million metric tonnes of PMN and rare earth minerals are available at the bottom of the seas in the Central Indian Ocean.
29. Recently, the 20-member Africa Expert Group (AEG), established by the Vivekananda International Foundation, presented a Report titled ‘India-Africa Partnership: Achievements, Challenges and Roadmap 2030’. Consider the following statements –
(1) The India-Africa Summit held in 2015 was the third such Summit.
(2) The India-Africa Summit was actually initiated by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1951.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) Only (2)
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A)
Exp: India-Africa Summit is a forum to re-initiate and reboot relation between India and African countries. It started from 2008 with New Delhi as its first venue. Since then, the summit has been held every three years, alternately in India and Africa. The second summit was held in Addis Ababa in 2011. The third summit, scheduled to be held in 2014, was postponed because of the Ebola outbreak, and took place in October, 2015 in New Delhi.
30. Recently, Union Minister of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, reviewed the project process of National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC), Lothal in Gandhinagar, Gujarat. Which of the following characterizes/characterize the people of Indus Civilization?
(1) They possessed great palaces and temples.
(2) They worshipped both male and female deities.
(3) They employed horse-drawn chariots in warfare.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (1) and (3)
(C) Only (2)
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C)
Exp: No building has been discovered at any Harappan site that can be positively identified as a temple, but the Great Bath at Mohenjo-Daro may have been used for ritual purposes. Clay figures of the Mother Goddess, worshipped by the people as a symbol of fertility, have been found. A seated figure of a male god, carved on a small stone seal, has also been found. The scene immediately brings to mind the traditional image of Pasupati Mahadeva. In addition to these, we come across numerous symbols of the phallus and female sex organs made of stone, which may have been objects of worship. On the basis of the Indus seals, it can be said that a large number of animals including goats, buffaloes, oxen, elephants, dogs, and camels were domesticated.
31. Recently, the 76th annual World Health Assembly was held at World Health Organization (WHO) Headquarters(HQ), Geneva, Switzerland, from 21st to 30th May 2023. Consider the following statements – (1) The World Health Assembly (WHA) is WHO’s decision-making body. (2) It is held twice in the year at the HQ of WHO, i.e., Geneva, Switzerland. (3) It also responsible for the appointment of the Director-General of WHO. Which of the above is/are correct? (A) Only (1) and (3) (B) Only (2) and (1) (C) Only (3) and (2) (D) None of the above Ans: (A) Exp: The World Health Assembly (WHA) is WHO’s decision-making body attended by delegations from all of WHO’s member states. It is held yearly at the HQ of WHO, i.e., Geneva, Switzerland. Functions of WHA – Deciding on Organization’s policies. Appointment of the Director-General of WHO. Administration of financial policies. Review and approval of the proposed programme budget.
32. As the monsoon season approaches, the food
supply situation in India is being closely
monitored.
With reference to the provisions
made under the National Food Security act, 2013
consider the following statements –
(1) The families coming under the category of
‘below poverty line (BPL)’ only are eligible to
receive subsidized food grains.
(2) The eldest woman in a household, of age 18
years or above, shall be the head of the
household for the purpose of issuance of a ration
card.
(3) Pregnant women and lactating mothers are
entitled to a “take-home ration” of 1600 calories
per day during pregnancy and or six months
thereafter.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only
(2) and (3)
(C) Only (2)
(D) All are correct
Ans: (C)
Exp: Some of the provisions of the National Food
Security Act, 2013 are as follows –
The Act provides for coverage of up to 75% of
the rural population and up to 50% of the urban
population for receiving subsidized foodgrains
under Targeted Public Distribution System
(TPDS), thus covering about two-thirds of the
population.
It provides that the eldest woman of the
household of age 18 years or above is to be the
head of the household for the purpose of issuing
ration cards.
Besides meals to pregnant women and lactating
mothers during pregnancy and six months after
childbirth, such women will also be entitled toreceive maternity benefit of not less than Rs
6,000.
The nutritional and feeding norms for
supplementary nutrition are 500 calories and 12-
15 grams of protein of children between the ages
of 6 months to 6 years, 600 (not 1600) calories
and 18-20 grams of protein to pregnant and
nursing mothers and 800 calories and 20-25
gram of protein to malnourished children.
33. Farmers in leading rice-growing states are
adopting the direct-seeding method as a solution
to delayed rains and labor shortages.
What is/are the advantage/advantages of zero
tillage in agriculture?
(1) Sowing of wheat is possible without burning
the residue of the previous crops.
(2) Without the need for a nursery of rice
saplings, direct planting of paddy seeds in the
wet soil is possible.
(3) Carbon sequestration in the soil is possible.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (2)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (3) and (1)
(D) All are correct
Ans: (D)
Exp: Zero-till farming is a way of growing wheat
crops without tillage or disturbing the soil in
harvested fields.
Happy Seeder is one of the unique techniques
which is used for sowing seed without any
burning of crop residue.
Direct Seeded Rice Zero-Tillage (DSR) is an
alternative crop establishment method for rice.
Where seeds are sown directly without raising
them in a nursery and can be done in zero-tillage
conditions.
Adopting no-tillage before cultivation has been
widely recommended as a means of enhancing
carbon sequestration in soils.
If crops are not burnt and the land is prepared
through mechanical agitation, carbon
sequestration remains possible.
34. Amid the Karnataka Assembly Election, The
parties have approached the Election
Commission of India regarding violations of the
Model Code of Conduct (MCC).Consider the following statements –
(1) Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the
election schedule for the conduct of both general
elections and bye-elections.
(2) The Election Commission resolves the
disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized
political parties.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1)
(B) (2) and (1)
(C) Only (2)
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C)
Exp: The election commission has three election
commissioners, one Chief Election
Commissioner and two Election
Commissioners. Election commission decides
the election schedule for the conduct of both
general elections and bye-elections. It also
decides the disputes relating to splits/mergers of
recognized political parties. It prepares electoral
roll, issues Electronic Photo Identity Card
(EPIC). It grants recognition to political parties
& allots election symbols to them along with
settling disputes related to it.
35. Recently, the World Meteorological
Organization (WMO) released its State of the
Global Climate 2022 report which pointed out
that the Paris Agreement on Climate Change has
been ineffective in fulfilling its agenda.
With reference to the Agreement at the
UNFCCC Meeting in Paris in 2015, which of the
following statements is/are correct?
(1) The Agreement aims to limit the greenhouse
gas emissions so that the rise in average global
temperature by the end of this century does not
exceed 2°C or even 1.5°C above pre-industrial
levels.
(2) Developed countries acknowledged their
historical responsibility in global warming and
committed to donate 1000 billion dollar a year
from 2020 to help developing countries to cope
with climate change.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1)
(B) (2) and (1)
(C) Only (2)
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A)
Exp: At COP 21 in Paris, on 12 December 2015,
Parties to the UNFCCC reached a landmark
agreement to combat climate change and to
accelerate and intensify the actions and
investments needed for a sustainable low carbon
future. The Agreement was signed by the
participating 196 countries. The Paris
Agreement opened for signature on 22 April
2016 in New York and entered into force on 4November 2016, after ratified by the 55
countries that account for at least 55% of global
emissions. The Agreement aim is to strengthen
the global response to the threat of climate
change by keeping a global temperature rise this
century well below 2 degrees Celsius above preindustrial
levels and to pursue efforts to limit the
temperature increase even further to 1.5 degrees
Celsius. Developed countries committed to
donate $100 billion a year from 2020 to help
developing countries to cope with climate
change.
36. Reports from organizations like the United
Nations Office for the Coordination of
Humanitarian Affairs (UN-OCHA) and the
Kenya Red Cross show dire cases of flash floods
in Kenya, Tanzania, and parts of Horn of Africa.
Consider the following statements regarding
Horn of Africa –
(1) The Horn of Africa is a peninsula in
Southeast Africa.
(2) It is the fourth largest peninsula in the world.
(3) It lies along the southern boundary of the Red
Sea.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (2)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (3) and (1)
(D) All are correct
Ans: (B)
Exp: The Horn of Africa is a peninsula in Northeast
Africa. Located on the easternmost part of the
African mainland, it is the fourth largest
peninsula in the world. It lies along the southern
boundary of the Red Sea and extends hundreds
of kilometres into the Guardafui Channel, Gulf
of Aden, and Indian Ocean. The Horn of Africa
is equidistant from the equator and the Tropic of
Cancer. The Horn contains such diverse areas as
the highlands of the Ethiopian Plateau, the
Ogaden desert, and the Eritrean and Somalian
coasts. The Horn of Africa denotes the region
containing the countries of Djibouti, Eritrea,
Ethiopia, and Somalia. The area has experienced
imperialism, neo-colonialism, Cold War, ethnic
strife, intra-African conflict, poverty, disease,
famine and much else.
37. The Union Cabinet has given its approval for the
establishment of the “world’s largest grain
storage plan in the cooperative sector” with an
outlay of around Rs 1 lakh crore.
Consider the following statements –
(1) In terms of short-term credit delivery to the
agriculture sector, District Central Cooperative
Banks (DCCBs) deliver more credit in
comparison to Scheduled Commercial Banks
and Regional Rural Banks.
(2) One of the most important functions of
DCCBs is to provide funds to the Primary
Agricultural Credit Societies.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1)
(B) (2) and (1)
(C) Only (2)
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C)
Exp: Schedules bank contributes to about 70-80%
share in agricultural and allied credit. Though
co-operative institutions also play a significant
role in providing finance to the agriculture sector
which stands at 15-16%, hence not as much as
Scheduled banks.
The Board of the DCCB comprises elected
Chairmen of PACS, representative of the State
Government and the State Cooperative Bank
apart from the CEO of the DCCB who would be
the member secretary.
DCCBs provide funds directly either to PACs or
to the farmers for excavation of wells, purchase
of pump sets to horticulture, animal husbandry,
and even rural transport like tractors and other
farm equipment, etc.
38. Urban co-operative banks (UCBs) have
requested the Reserve Bank of India to allow
them to do one-time settlement (OTS) of bad
loans along the lines of OTS available for
commercial banks.
With reference to ‘Urban Cooperative Banks’ in
India, consider the following statements –
(1) They are supervised and regulated by local
boards set up by the State Governments.
(2) They can issue equity shares and preference
shares.
(3) They were brought under the purview of the
Banking Regulation Act, 1949 through an
Amendment in 1966.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (2)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (3) and (1)
(D) All are correct
Ans: (B)
Exp: Co-operative banks are registered under the
Cooperative Societies Act, 1912. Co-operative banks are regulated by the Reserve
Bank of India.
Co-operative banks are regulated by the Reserve
Bank of India under the Banking Regulation
Act,1949 and Banking Laws (Application to
Cooperative Societies) Act, 1965.
Urban cooperative banks has now treated on a
par with commercial banks and a cooperative
bank can with prior approval of the RBI, issue
equity shares, preference shares or special shares
to its members or to any other person residing
within its area of operation by way of public
issue or private placements.
39. A tussle between the Chief Minister of West
Bengal and Governor came to the fore over the
appointment of 10 senior professors as interim
Vice-Chancellors (VC) of state-run universities.
With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a
State in India, consider the following statements
–
(1) The Governor makes a customary address to
Members of the House at the commencement of
the first session of the year.
(2) When a State Legislature does not have a rule
on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha
rule on that matter.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1)
(B) (2) and (1)
(C) Only (2)
(D) None of the above
Ans: (B)
Exp: Article 176(1) of the Constitution of India
enjoins that the Governor shall address both the
Houses assembled together at the
commencement of the first Session after each
general election to the Assembly and at the
commencement of the first session of each year
and inform the Legislature of the causes of its
Summons. .
In case, when there is no rule on a particular
subject in the State Legislature, under a
convention since colonial times, state
legislatures follow the rules of the Lok Sabha.
40. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has formed
an eight-member fact-finding committee to look
into the death of 11 people due to a recent gas
leak in Ludhiana district of Punjab.
How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT)
different from the Central Pollution Control
Board (CPCB)?
(1) The NGT has been established by an Act
whereas the CPCB has been created by an
executive order of the Government.
(2) The NGT provides environmental justice and
helps reduce the burden of litigation in the
higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes
cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to
improve the quality of air in the country.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1)
(B) (2) and (1)
(C) Only (2)
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C)
Exp: The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is a
statutory body that was established in 2010 by
the National Green Tribunal Act.
It was set up to handle cases and speed up the
cases related to environmental issues.
The Tribunal shall not be bound by the
procedure laid down under the Code of Civil
Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by
principles of natural justice.
New Delhi is the Principal Place of Sitting of the
Tribunal and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata, and
Chennai shall be the other 4 places of sitting of
the Tribunal.
The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB),
the statutory organization, was constituted in
September 1974 under the Water (Prevention
and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
Further, CPCB was entrusted with the powers
and functions under the Air (Prevention and
Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
Principal Functions of the CPCB, as spelled out
in the Water (Prevention and Control of
Pollution) Act, 1974, and the Air (Prevention
and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981,
to promote cleanliness of streams and wells in
different areas of the States by prevention,
control and abatement of water pollution, and
to improve the quality of air and to prevent,
control or abate air pollution in the country.
41. Air pollution is responsible for around 17 per
cent of asthma cases in children worldwide
Which of the following are some important
pollutants released by steel industry in India?
(1) Oxides of Sulphur
(2) Oxides of nitrogen
(3) Carbon monoxide
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (2)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (3) and (1)
(D) All are correct
Ans: (D)
Exp: The main pollutants are particulate matter,
oxides of sulphur and nitrogen, and carbon
monoxide along with high emissions of carbon
dioxide.
Coke (mostly carbon), reacts with the blast air to
produce carbon monoxide, which, in turn, reacts
with the iron oxide to produce carbon dioxide
and metallic iron.
National Steel Policy 2017 –
The National Steel Policy which was released in
2017 aims to attain a steel production capacity in
India of 300 MT by 2030.
It has a long-term vision to enhance domestic
consumption, produce high-quality steel and
make the sector globally competitive.
42. India’s finished steel exports in April rose to
their highest level in 13 months in April on the
back of strong bookings from Europe, while
imports also remained at elevated levels.
Steel slag can be the material for which of the
following?
(1) Construction of base road
(2) Improvement of agricultural soil
(3) Production of cement
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (2) (B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (3) and (1) (D) All are correct
Ans: (D)
Exp: Steel slag, a by-product of steel making, is
produced during the separation of the molten
steel from impurities in steel-making furnaces.
One of the ingredients of asphalt is steel slag, a
by-product of the steel and iron production
processes.
Asphalt roads are made of a mixture of
aggregates, binders, and fillers.
The aggregates are typically iron or steel slag,
sand, gravel, mixed with asphalt that produces
bitumen.
The bitumen, produced by the refineries, plays
an important role in road construction.
Steel slags can be used in several activities, such
as construction and paving, and also in the
agricultural sector
Steel slag has the ability to correct soil acidity,
as it contains some nutrients for the plants and
also as silicate fertilizer that is capable of
providing silicon to the plants.
Steel slag, another waste from the Iron & Steel
Industry, has shown potential for use as a raw
mix component up to 10% in the manufacture of
cement clinker.
Steel slag can also replace granulated blast
furnace slag up to 10% in the manufacture of
Portland Slag Cement. Steel slag has been used
successfully to treat acidic water discharges
from abandoned mines.
43. World Environment Day, observed annually on
June 5th, serves as a platform to raise awareness
about environmental protection and
sustainability.
Consider the following statements related to
environment –
(1) The Sustainable Development Goals were
first proposed in 1972 by a global think tank
called the ‘Club of Rome’.
(2) The Sustainable Development Goals have to
be achieved by 2030.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1)
(B) (2) and (1)
(C) Only (2)
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C)
Exp: The first report of the Club of Rome was the
famous The limits to growth, brought out in
1972 by an MIT research team coordinated by
Dennis and Donella Meadows.
The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)
were adopted by all United Nations Member
States in 2015 to end poverty, reduce inequality
and build more peaceful, prosperous societies by
2030.The objective of SDG was to produce a set of
universal goals that meet the urgent
environmental, political, and economic
challenges facing our world.
Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were
born at the United Nations Conference on
Sustainable Development in Rio de Janeiro in
2012.
44. The 22nd Law Commission report recommends
retaining Section 124A of the IPC, pertaining to
sedition, but proposes amendments and
procedural safeguards to prevent misuse.
With reference to Rowlatt Satyagraha, which of
the following statements is/are correct?
(1) The Rowlatt Act was based on the
recommendations of the ‘Sedition Committee’.
(2) In Rowlatt Satyagraha, Gandhiji tried to
utilize the Home Rule League.
(3) Demonstrations against the arrival of Simon
Commission coincided with Rowlatt
Satyagraha.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (2)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (3) and (1)
(D) All are correct
Ans: (A)
Exp: The Rowlatt committee was a Sedition
Committee appointed in 1918 by the British
Indian Government with Mr Justice Rowlatt, an
English judge, as its president. The purpose of
the committee was to evaluate political terrorism
in India, especially Bengal and Punjab. In
organizing his satyagraha Gandhi tried to utilize
three types of political networks – The Home
Rule Leagues, Certain pan Islamist groups and a
satyagraha sabha which he himself started in
Bombay on 24 February.
45. India is reconsidering its anaemia policy and
shifting the estimation of anaemia prevalence
from the National Family Health Survey
(NFHS) to the Diet and Biomarkers Survey
(DABS-I).
Consider the following statements in the context
of interventions being undertaken under
Anaemia Mukt Bharat –
(1) It provides prophylactic calcium
supplementation for pre-school children,
adolescents and pregnant women.
(2) It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping
at the time of childbirth.
(3) It provides for periodic deworming to
children and adolescents.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (2) (B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (3) and (1) (D) All are correct
Ans: (B)
Exp: Not Prophylactic calcium supplementation but
Prophylactic Iron and Folic Acid
Supplementation is provided to
children,adolescents and women of reproductive
age and pregnant women irrespective of anemia.
Appropriate Infant and Young Child Feeding
(IYCF) withemphasis on adequate and ageappropriate
complementary foods for children 6
months and above.
Increase intake of iron-rich, protein-rich and
vitamin C-rich foods through dietary
diversification/quantity/frequency and food
fortification
Promoting practice of delayed cord clamping
(by atleast 3 minutes or until cord pulsations
cease) in all health facility deliveries followed
by early initiation of breastfeeding within 1 hour
of birth.
Bi-annual mass deworming for children in the
age groups between 1-19 years is carried out
every year under the National Deworming Day
(NDD) program.
46. The recently held Asian Development Bank
Governor’s Seminar is an annual event that
brings together the Governors of ADB’s member
countries to discuss developmental issues in the
Asia-Pacific region.
Consider the following statements –
(1) India has ratified the Trade Facilitation
Agreement (TFA) of WTO.
(2) TFA is a part of WTO’s Bali Ministerial
Package of 2013.
(3) TFA came into force in January 2016.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (2) and (1)
(C) Only (3) and (2)
(D) None of the above
Ans: (B)
Exp: The Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) was
one among the 10 agreements of the deal the
WTO members (including India) had agreed
upon in December 2013 Bali Ministerial
meeting.
The TFA seeks to speed up global trade by
reforming customs procedures and cutting red
tape.
India had agreed to sign the TFA by July 31st
2014, which aims at easing customs procedures
to boost commerce.
TFA came into force in February 2017 after the
ratification of the 2/3rd members of the WTO.
47. Vedanta’s promoters took out a $100 million
loan from Standard Chartered Bank in
September 2022 and pledged their shares as
collateral.
With reference to Trade-Related Investment
Measures (TRIMS), which of the following
statements is/are correct?
(1) Quantitative restrictions on imports by
foreign investors are prohibited.
(2) They apply to investment measures related to
trade in both goods and services.
(3) They are not concerned with the regulation
of foreign investment.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (2)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (3) and (1)
(D) All are correct
Ans: (C)
Exp: Trade-Related Investment Measures provide
quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign
investors are prohibited.
TRIMS agreement applies only to investment
measures related to trade in goods and not in
services and it is mentioned in Article 1 of the
TRIMS agreement.
As per the TRIMs Agreement, members are
required to notify the WTO Council for Trade in
Goods of their existing TRIMs that are
inconsistent with the agreement.
TRIMs are rules that restrict the preference of
domestic firms and thereby enable international
firms to operate more easily within foreign
markets.
They don’t regulate foreign investment as such,
which is governed by FEMA and DIPP
guidelines/regulations.
48. Recently a petitioner has argued that since the
state and the Union of India have not been able
to decide on the mercy petition, which is pending
for more than 10 years, the death penalty should
be commuted to life imprisonment.
Which of the following are the discretionary
powers given to the Governor of a State?
(1) Sending a report to the President of India for
imposing the President’s rule
(2) Reserving certain bills passed by the State
Legislature for consideration of the President of
India
(3) Making the rules to conduct the business of
the State Government
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (2) (B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (3) and (1) (D) All are correct
Ans : (A)
Exp: The Governor performs the same duties as the
President, but for the State.
The discretionary powers of the Governor
include:-
He/She has the discretion to choose a candidate
for the chief minister when no party gets a clear
majority.
He/She can withhold his assent to a bill and send
it to the President for his approval. He/She can
reserve certain bills passed by the State
Legislature for consideration of the President of
India.
He/She can override the advice of the council of
ministers if specifically permitted by the
President during emergency rule per Article 353.
Article 356 also states that the President can
invoke President rule in a state on the report of
the governor.
The Governor appoints Chief Minister and other
Ministers as per Article 164 and the Advocate
General for the State as per Article 165. But this
is not a part of discretionary powers.
49. Recently, Scientists from the United States and
Canada have achieved a remarkable feat in the
field of medicine by using Artificial Intelligence
(AI) to discover a powerful antibiotic called
Abaucin capable of fighting Acinetobacter
baumannii superbug.
Which of the following are the reasons for the
occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial
pathogens in India?
(1) Genetic predisposition of some people
(2) Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure
diseases
(3) Using antibiotics in livestock farming
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (3) (B) Only (2) and (1)
(C) Only (3) and (2) (D) None of the above
Ans: (C)
Exp: When an organism is resistant to more than one
drug, it is said to be multidrug-resistant.
A genetic predisposition means people who
inherit genetic disorders or illness from the
parents.
Reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug
resistance in microbial pathogens in India are –
Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure
diseases.
The use of a high volume of antibiotics in
livestock farming contributes to the
development of antimicrobial-resistant bacteria.
These bacteria can be transmitted from animals
to humans via direct contact with animals, or
through the food chain and the environment.
50. A recent report called ‘Low-cost finance for
energy transition,’ released by the International
Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), has
recognized India’s outstanding progress in
expanding its renewable energy capacity.
With reference to the Indian Renewable Energy
Development Agency Limited (IREDA), which
of the following statements is/are correct?
(1) It is a Public Limited Government Company.
(2) It is a Non-Banking Financial Company.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) (B) (2) and (1)
(C) Only (2) (D) None of the above
Ans: (B)
Exp: Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency
Limited (IREDA) is a Mini Ratna (category-I)
GoI enterprise under the administrative control
of Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
(MNRE).
It is a Public Limited Government Company
established as a Non-Banking Financial
Institution in 1987 engaged in promoting,
developing and extending financial assistance
for setting up projects relating to new and
renewable sources of energy.
51. India achieved a significant milestone in the
aviation sector by conducting Asia’s first
demonstration of performance-based navigation
for helicopters.
With reference to the Indian Regional
Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider
the following statements –
(1) IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary
and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.
(2) IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq.
Km beyond its borders.
(3) India will have its own satellite navigation
system with full global coverage by the middle
of 2019.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) (B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (3) (D) All are correct
Ans: (A)
Exp: IRNSS consists of a constellation of eight
satellites, NavIC. Three satellites are located in
the geostationary orbit and the remaining four
are located in geosynchronous orbits.
It is designed to provide accurate position
information service to users in India as well as
the region extending up to 1500 km from its
boundary, which is its primary service area.
Three satellites have been in geostationary orbit
over the Indian Ocean. Missile targeting could
be an important military application for the
constellation.
52. Recently, an outreach program named BizAmp
was organized by the Ministry of MSME in
association with NSIC Venture Capital Fund
Limited (NVCFL) under its Self-Reliant India
(SRI) Fund at Dimapur Nagaland.
What is/are the recent policy initiative(s)of
Government of India to promote the growth of
the manufacturing sector?
(1) Setting up of National Investment and
Manufacturing Zones
(2) Providing the benefit of ‘single window
clearance’
(3) Establishing the Technology Acquisition and
Development Fund
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (3) (B) Only (2) and (1)
(C) Only (3) and (2) (D) All are correct
Ans: (D)
Ans: (D)
Exp: The National Manufacturing Policy was
approved by the Government in October 2011.
The major objectives of the policy are enhancing
the share of manufacturing in the gross domestic
product (GDP) to 25 per cent and creating an
additional 100 million jobs over a decade or so.
The NMP provides for the promotion of clusters
and aggregation, especially through the creation
of National Investment and Manufacturing
Zones (NIMZs).
Out of twelve NIMZs so far announced, eight are
along the DMIC.
Advisory to States on simplification &
rationalization of business regulations and skill
development.
Constitution of the approval/monitoring
mechanism under the policy.
Scheme prepared under NMP on Technology
Acquisition and Development Fund (TADF).
Initiating the process of simplification and
rationalization of state-level business
regulations and developing single-window
clearance.
53. As part of the Aazadi Ka Amrit Mahostav
celebrations, the Union Ministry for Fisheries,
Animal husbandry and Dairying has launched
the Nationwide Animal Husbandry, Dairying,
and Fisheries (AHDF) KCC Campaign from 1st
May 2023 to 31st March 2024.
Under the Kisan Credit Card scheme, short-term
credit support is given to farmers for which of
the following purposes?
(1) Working capital for maintenance of farm
assets
(2) Purchase of combine harvesters, tractors and
mini trucks
(3) Consumption requirements of farm
households
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (2) (B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (3) and (1) (D) None of the above
Ans: (C)
Exp: The Kisan Credit Card scheme aims at providing
adequate and timely credit support from the
banking system under a single window with the
flexible and simplified procedure to the farmers
for their cultivation and other needs as indicated
below:
To meet the short term credit requirements for
the cultivation of crops
Post-harvest expenses; Produce marketing loan
Consumption requirements of farmer household
Working capital for maintenance of farm assets
and activities allied to agriculture
Investment credit requirement for agriculture
and allied activities.
The Kisan Credit Card Scheme detailed in the
ensuing paragraphs is to be implemented by
Commercial Banks, RRBs, Small Finance
Banks, and Cooperatives.
54. BizAmp is the first outreach program in the
Northeast Region of the country which focused
on maximizing capital benefits through
NVCFL’s SRI Fund
Which of the following can aid in furthering the
Government’s objective of inclusive growth?
(1) Promoting Self-Help Groups
(2) Promoting Micro, Small and Medium
Enterprises
(3) Implementing the Right to Education Act
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (2)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (3) and (1)
(D) All are correct
Ans: (D)
Exp: The National Manufacturing Policy was
approved by the Government in October 2011.
The major objectives of the policy are enhancing
the share of manufacturing in the gross domestic
product (GDP) to 25 per cent and creating an
additional 100 million jobs over a decade or so.
The NMP provides for the promotion of clusters
and aggregation, especially through the creation
of National Investment and Manufacturing
Zones (NIMZs). Out of twelve NIMZs so far
announced, eight are along the DMIC. Advisory
to States on simplification & rationalization of
business regulations and skill development.
Constitution of the approval/monitoring
mechanism under the policy. Scheme prepared
under NMP on Technology Acquisition and
Development Fund (TADF). Initiating the
process of simplification and rationalization of
state-level business regulations and developing
single-window clearance.
55. The Prime Minister on 9th May, 2022 paid
tribute to Gurudev Rabindranath Tagore on his
birth anniversary.
Consider the following statements regarding
Rabindranath Tagore –
(1) He was also referred to as ‘Gurudev’,
‘Kabiguru’, and ‘Biswakabi’.
(2) He was an exceptional literary figure and a
renowned polymath.
(3) He had spoken at the World Parliament for
Religions in the years 1941 and 1945.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (2) and (1)
(C) Only (3) and (2)
(D) None of the above
Ans: (B)
Exp: Rabindranath Tagore was also referred to as
‘Gurudev’, ‘Kabiguru’, and ‘Biswakabi’. He is
regarded as the outstanding creative artist of
modern India and hailed by W.B Yeats,
Rabindranath Tagore was a Bengali poet,
novelist, and painter, who was highly influential
in introducing Indian culture to the west. He had
always stressed that unity in diversity is the only
possible way for India’s national integration. He
had spoken at the World Parliament for
Religions in the years 1929 and 1937. In
1913 he was awarded the Nobel Prize in
Literature for his work on Gitanjali. He was the
first non-European to receive the Nobel Prize. In
1915 he was awarded knighthood by the British King George V. In 1919, following the Jallianwalla Bagh massacre, he renounced his Knighthood.
56. Recently, Health authorities in the United
Kingdom have confirmed a case of monkeypox.
Consider the following statements regarding
Monkey Pox –
(1) Monkeypox is a viral zoonotic disease that
occurs primarily in tropical rainforest areas.
(2) Monkeypox virus is a member of the
Orthopoxvirus genus in the family Avipoxvirus.
(3) Monkey Pox infection was first discovered in
1958.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (2)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (3) and (1)
(D) All are correct
Ans: (A)
Exp: Monkeypox is a viral zoonotic disease that
occurs primarily in tropical rainforest areas of
Central and West Africa and is occasionally
exported to other regions. Monkeypox virus infection has been detected in
squirrels, Gambian poached rats, dormice, and
some species of monkeys.
Monkeypox is caused by monkeypox virus, a
member of the Orthopoxvirus genus in the
family Poxviridae.
Background: Monkey Pox infection was first
discovered in 1958 following two outbreaks of a
pox-like disease in colonies of monkeys kept for
research — which led to the name ‘monkeypox’.
Symptoms: Monkeypox typically presents
clinically with fever, rash and swollen lymph
nodes.
It causes the lymph nodes to swell
(lymphadenopathy), which smallpox does not.
57. The India Meteorological Department (IMD)
has predicted the Cyclone Asani to intensify into
a “severe cyclone” over Southeast regions of
Bay of Bengal.
Consider the following statements –
(1) Jet streams occur in the both Hemispheres.
(2) Only some cyclones develop an eye.
(3) The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone
is nearly 10ºC lesser than that of the
surroundings.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (2)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (3) and (1) (D) All are correct
Exp: Jet Stream is a geostrophic wind blowing
horizontally through the upper layers of the
troposphere, generally from west to east, at an
altitude of 20,000 – 50,000 feet. Jet Streams
develop where air masses of different
temperatures meet. So, usually surface
temperatures determine where the Jet Stream
will form. Greater the difference in temperature,
faster is the wind velocity inside the jet stream.
Jet Streams extend from 20° latitude to the poles
in both hemispheres. Cyclones are of two types,
tropical cyclone and temperate cyclone. The
center of a tropical cyclone is known as the
‘eye’, where the wind is calm at the center with
no rainfall. However, in a temperate cyclone,
there is not a single place where winds and rains
are inactive, so the eye is not found. The
warmest temperatures are found in the eye itself,
not in the eyewall clouds where the latent heat
occurs. The air is saturated only where
convective vertical motions pass through flight
level. Inside the eye, the temperature is greater
than 28°C and the dewpoint is less than 0°C.
These warm and dry conditions are typical of the
eyes of extremely intense tropical cyclones.
58. The Draft Pandemic treaty also know as “Zero
Draft”, is currently under negotiation by
Member States at the World Health Assembly.
Which of the following are the reasons for the
occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial
pathogens in India?
(1) Genetic predisposition of some people
(2) Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure
diseases
(3) Using antibiotics in livestock farming
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (2) and (1)
(C) Only (3) and (2)
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C)
Exp: When an organism is resistant to more than one
drug, it is said to be multidrug-resistant.
A genetic predisposition means people who
inherit genetic disorders or illness from the
parents.
Reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug
resistance in microbial pathogens in India are –
Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure
diseases. The use of a high volume of antibiotics in
livestock farming contributes to the
development of antimicrobial-resistant bacteria.
59. The 22nd Law Commission’s recent report
provides a thorough examination of adverse
possession and its implications in property law
and recommended that no changes are necessary
in the existing provisions under the Limitation
Act of 1963.
Consider the following statements regarding
Law Commission of India –
(1) The Law Commission of India is a statutory
body constituted by the Government of India.
(2) It works as an advisory body to the Ministry
of Law and Justice.
(3) The first Law Commission of independent
India was established in 1955.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (2)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (3) and (1)
(D) All are correct
Ans: (B)
Exp: The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory
body constituted by the Government of India
from time to time, with definite terms of
reference to carry out research in the field of law.
It works as an advisory body to the Ministry of
Law and Justice.
The first Law Commission of independent India
was established in 1955 for a three-year term.
The Law Commission of India has submitted
277 reports so far on various topics ranging from
civil law, criminal law, constitutional law,
family law, personal law, environmental law,
human rights law, etc.
60. Investigation into the recent tragic train accident
in Odisha is being conducted by the Commission
of Railway Safety for the south-eastern circle.
Consider the following statements rearding
Commission of Railway Safety –
(1) It is Headquartered in New Delhi.
(2) It is under the administrative control of the
Ministry of Civil Aviation.
(3) It deals with matters related to safety of rail
travel and operations.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (2)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (3) and (1)
(D) All are correct
Ans: (B)
Exp: CRS is a government body that acts as the
railway safety authority in the country.
It deals with matters related to safety of rail
travel and operations, among some other
statutory functions – inspectorial, investigatory,
and advisory – as laid down in the Railways Act,
1989.
It is Headquartered in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh.
It is under the administrative control of the
Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA) instead of
the Ministry of Railways.
The reason behind this is to keep the CRS
insulated from the influence of the country’s
railway establishment and prevent conflicts of
interest.
61. As per RBI, 437.22 tonnes of gold are held
overseas are held with the Bank of England and
the Bank of International Settlements (BIS), and
301.10 tonnes of gold is held domestically.
What is/are the purpose/purposes of
Government’s ‘Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme’
and ‘Gold Monetization Scheme’?
(1) To bring the idle gold lying with Indian
households into the economy.
(2) To promote FDI in the gold and jewellery
sector.
(3) To reduce India’s dependence on gold
imports.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (2) and (1)
(C) Only (3) and (2)
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A)
Exp: Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme was launched
under the Gold Monetisation Scheme in
November 2015. Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBs)
are government securities denominated in grams
of gold issued by RBI behalf of the Government.
Gold Monetization Scheme is aimed to mobilize
gold held by households and facilitate its use for
productive purposes in order to reduce the
country’s reliance on the import of gold. All
Scheduled Commercial Banks excluding RRBs
are eligible to implement the Scheme. Both the
schemes are not intended to promote FDI in the
gold and jewellery sector.
62. Recently, the winners of the 2023 Laureus
World Sports Awards were announced. The
Awards were held in person in Paris for the first
time since 2020. Consider the following statements in respect of
the Laureus World Sports Award which was
instituted in the year 2000 –
(1) American golfer Tiger Woods was the first
winner of this award.
(2) The award was received mostly by ‘Formula
One’ players so far.
(3) Roger Federer received this award maximum
number of times compared to others.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (2)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (3) and (1)
(D) All are correct
Ans: (C)
Exp: The Laureus World Sports Awards is the
premier global sporting awards. First held in
2000, the annual event honours the greatest and
most inspirational sporting triumphs of the year
and showcases the work of Laureus Sport for
Good. American golfer Tiger Woods was the
first winner of this award. The award has been
received mostly by Men’s Football Team (6
times) players so far. Roger Federer (5 times)
has received this award, the maximum number
of times compared to others followed by Usain
Bolt (4 times) and Novak Djokovic (4 times).
63. A significant geomagnetic storm is anticipated,
triggered by strong solar storm. This occurrence
has the potential to “supercharge” auroras,
creating a spectacular visual display in the night
sky.
If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the
Earth, which of the following are the possible
effects on the Earth?
(1) Intense auroras could occur over much of the
Earth.
(2) Forest fires could take place over much of the
planet.
(3) Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (2) (B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (3) and (1) (D) All are correct
Ans: (C)
Exp: The high-energy particles emitted by the flare
could also cause certain atoms in the Earth’s
atmosphere to glow, leading to auroras in
Central Europe as well as North America. The
phenomenon could only be seen if the weather is
clear.
There is no causal link between the coronal mass
ejections (CMEs) and the deadly forest fires. There is a common misconception that solar
storms are associated with extreme geological
and atmospheric effects on Earth. The sun
cannot produce solar flares or CMEs that
physically burn the landscape, if it did, I doubt
complex life would have had much of a chance
at evolving over the last few billion years if our
planet was constantly being sterilized.
The scientists found that solar flares and storms
heated and expanded the atmosphere and that
these effects could extend to the satellites’
orbits. The density of atmospheric gases
increases, slowing the satellites and causing
them to lose altitude by a few kilometers per day.
Solar flares allow interference with the shortwave
radios that are being used, emitting more
rays and allowing people to get more of a
sunburn during this time frame.
64. The sludge found in Indian sewage treatment
plants (STPs) plays a significant role in the
efforts to treat polluted water from the Ganga
River. A recent study of this sludge revealed its
potential for use as fertilizer and a potential
biofuel.
Which of the following are the key features of
‘National Ganga River Basin Authority
(NGRBA)’?
(1) River basin is the unit of planning and
management.
(2) It spearheads the river conservation efforts at
the national level.
(3) One of the Chief Ministers of the States
through which the Ganga flows becomes the
Chairman of NGRBA on rotation basis.
(A) Only (1) and (3) (B) Only (2) and (1)
(C) Only (3) and (2) (D) None of the above
Ans: (B)
Exp: National Ganga River Basin Authority
(NGRBA) has started the Mission Clean Ganga.
It aimed at championing the challenges posed to
Ganga through four different sectors, namely,
wastewater management, solid wastethrough which Ganga flows, i.e. Uttarakhand,
Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, and West
Bengal, among others.
The river basin is the unit of planning and
management, an internationally accepted
strategy for the integrated management of rivers.
National Ganga River Basin Authority
(NGRBA) will spearhead river conservation
efforts at the national level and implementation
will be by the State Agencies and Urban Local
Bodies.
management, industrial pollution, and riverfront
development.
Ministry of Jal Shakti is the nodal Ministry for
the NGRBA (National Ganga River Basin
Authority (NGRBA).
The NGRBA is chaired by the Prime Minister
and has as its members the Union Ministers
concerned, and the Chief Ministers of the States.
65. Recently, the three social security (Jan
Suraksha) schemes – Pradhan Mantri Suraksha
Bima Yojana (PMSBY), Pradhan Mantri Jeevan
Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) and Atal Pension
Yojana (APY) – completed 8 years of providing
social security net.
Regarding “Atal Pension Yojana”, which of the
following statements is/are correct?
(1) It is a minimum guaranteed pension scheme
mainly targeted at unorganized sector workers.
(2) Only one member of a family can join the
scheme.
(3) Same amount of pension is guaranteed for
the spouse for life after subscriber’s death.
(A) Only (1) and (2) (B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (3) and (1) (D) All are correct
Ans: (C)
Exp: Atal Pension Yojana is a pension scheme
introduced by the Government of India in 2015–
16.
The objective of the scheme is to provide
pension benefits to individuals in the
unorganized sector.
Atal Pension Yojana (APY) is open to all bank
account holders who are not members of any
statutory social security scheme.
Atal Pension Yojana scheme is regulated and
controlled by the Pension Funds Regulatory
Authority of India (PFRDA).
The spouse of the subscriber shall be entitled to
receive the same pension amount even after the
subscriber’s death.
66. Recently, President of India presented gallantry
awards to 37 personnel of the armed forces,
paramilitary, and police forces for their bravery
and valour in the line of duty. Eight personnel
were conferred with the Kirti Chakra, and 29
personnel received the Shaurya Chakra. Consider the following statements in respect of
Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards –
(1) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles
under the Article 18(1) of the Constitution of
India.
(2) Padma Awards, which were instituted in the
year 1954, were suspended only once.
(3) The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is
restricted to a maximum of five in a particular
year.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (2)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (3) and (1)
(D) All are correct
Ans: (D)
Exp: Article 18(1) prohibits the State to confer titles
on anybody whether a citizen or a non-citizen.
Military and academic distinctions are, however,
exempted from the prohibition. Bharat Ratna
and Padma Awards are not titles under the
Article 18(1). Padma Vibhushan is highest in the
hierarchy of Padma Awards followed by Padma
Bhushan and Padma Shri. The Padma Awards
were suspended during the years 1978, 1979 and
1993 to 1997. Bharat Ratna is the highest
civilian award of the country. It is awarded in
recognition of exceptional service/performance
of the highest order in any field of human
endeavour. The recommendations for Bharat
Ratna are made by the Prime Minister to the
President of India. The number of Bharat Ratna
Awards is restricted to a maximum of three in a
particular year.
67. During the recent 49th G7 summit, member
countries had outlined key milestones in their
climate Wishlist in response to ongoing studies
and reports that continue to raise alarms about
the worsening state of climate change, urging
immediate action. With reference to the
Agreement at the UNFCCC Meeting in Paris in
2015, which of the following statements is/are
correct?
(1) The Agreement aims to limit the greenhouse
gas emissions so that the rise in average global
temperature by the end of this century does not
exceed 2°C or even 1.5°C above pre-industrial
levels.
(2) Developed countries acknowledged their
historical responsibility in global warming and
committed to donate $1000 billion a year from2020 to help developing countries to cope with
climate change.
(A) Only (1)
(B) (2) and (1)
(C) Only (3)
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A)
Exp: At COP 21 in Paris, on 12 December 2015,
Parties to the UNFCCC reached a landmark
agreement to combat climate change and to
accelerate and intensify the actions and
investments needed for a sustainable low carbon
future.
The Agreement was signed by the participating
196 countries.
The Paris Agreement opened for signature on 22
April 2016 in New York and entered into force
on 4 November 2016, after ratified by the 55
countries that account for at least 55% of global
emissions. The Agreement aim is to strengthen
the global response to the threat of climate
change by keeping a global temperature rise this
century well below 2 degrees Celsius above preindustrial
levels and to pursue efforts to limit the
temperature increase even further to 1.5 degrees
Celsius.
Developed countries committed to donate $100
billion a year from 2020 to help developing
countries to cope with climate change.
68. Recently, a new study has been published in the
Nature journal describing a Pangenome
Reference Map, built using genomes from 47
anonymous individuals (19 men and 28 women),
mainly from Africa but also from the Caribbean,
Americas, East Asia, and Europe.
With reference to agriculture in India, how can
the technique of “genome sequencing”, be used
in the immediate future?
(1) Genome sequencing can be used to identify
genetic markers for disease resistance and
drought tolerance in various crop plants.
(2) This technique helps in reducing the time
required to develop new varieties of crop plants.
(3) It can be used to decipher the host-pathogen
relationships in crops.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (2)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (3) and (1)
(D) All are correct
Ans: (D)
Exp: Chinese scientists decoded rice genome in 2002.
The Indian Agricultural Research Institute
(IARI) scientists used the genome sequencing tdevelop better varieties of rice such as Pusa
Basmati-1 and Pusa Basmati-1121, which
currently makes up substantially in India’s rice
export. Several transgenic varieties have also
been developed, including insect resistant
cotton, herbicide tolerant soybean, and virus
resistant papaya.
In conventional breeding, plant breeders
scrutinize their fields and search for individual
plants that exhibit desirable traits. These traits
arise spontaneously through a process called
mutation, but the natural rate of mutation is very
slow and unreliable to produce all the plant traits
that breeders would like to see. However, in
genome sequencing it takes less time, thus it is
more preferable.
The host-pathogen interaction is defined as how
microbes or viruses sustain themselves within
host organisms on a molecular, cellular,
organism or population level. The genome
sequencing enables the study of the entire DNA
sequence of a crop, thus it aids in understanding
of pathogens’ survival or breeding zone.
69. The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers
Welfare (MoA&FW), recently celebrated World
Bee Day on May 20th, 2023 at Balaghat,
Madhya Pradesh.
Consider the following kinds of organisms –
(1) Bat, (2) Bee, (3) Bird
Which of the above is/are pollinating
agent/agents?
(A) Only (1) and (2)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (3) and (1)
(D) All are correct
Ans: (D)
Exp: Agents for Pollination-
Plants use two abiotic (wind and water) and one
biotic (animals) agent to achieve pollination.
The majority of plants use biotic agents for
pollination. Only a small proportion of plants
use abiotic agents.
Pollination by wind is more common amongst
abiotic pollinations-
Wind pollination also requires that the pollen
grains are light and non-sticky so that they can
be transported in wind currents.
Pollination by water-
It is quite rare in flowering plants and is limited
to about 30 genera, mostly monocotyledons.
Biotic agents
Entomophily: pollination by Insects. Eg. Bee. Ornithophily: pollination by birds.
Chiropteriphily: pollination by bats.
Malacophily: pollination by slug and snail.
70. India Launched National Green Hydrogen
Mission
In context to green energy tell us, which of the
following best describes/describe the aim of
‘Green India Mission’ of the Government of
India?
(1) Incorporating environmental benefits and
costs into the Union and State Budgets thereby
implementing the ‘green accounting’.
(2) Launching the second green revolution to
enhance agricultural output so as to ensure food
security to one and all in the future.
(3) Restoring and enhancing forest cover and
responding to climate change by a combination
of adaptation and mitigation measures.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2) and (1)
(C) Only (3)
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C)
Exp: Green India Mission:
It was launched in 2014.
It is one of the eight missions under the National
Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC).
Its objective is to respond to climate change by
a combination of adaptation and mitigation
measures.
It is aimed at protecting, restoring, and
enhancing India’s diminishing forest cover.
Hence statement 3 is correct.
Its one of the main objectives is to enhance
annual CO2 sequestration by 50-60 million
tonnes by 2020.
71. Over the past months there have been several
stories about how extreme weather events have
disrupted normal life in India. The Global
Climate Risk Index 2021 had ranked India 7th in
the list of most affected countries in terms of
exposure and vulnerability to climate risk
events.
In the context of India’s preparation for Climate-
Smart Agriculture, consider the following
statements –
(1) The ‘Climate-Smart Village’ approach in
India is a part of a project led by the Climate
Change, Agriculture and Food Security
(CCAFS), an international research programme. (2) The project of CCAFS is carried out under
Consultative Group on International
Agricultural Research (CGIAR) headquartered
in France.
(3) The International Crops Research Institute
for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is
one of the CGIAR’s research centres.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (2)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (3) and (1)
(D) All are correct
Ans: (D)
Exp: The CGIAR Research Program on Climate
Change, Agriculture and Food Security
(CCAFS) envisions the Climate-Smart Village
project to not only be long-term, but also
participatory and relevant to the local context.
Women farmers are encouraged to weigh in on
all the discussions and take the lead in
prioritizing what activities should be
implemented in their villages. This is to make
sure the climate-smart farming practices stick on
long after the project has been phased out.
CGIAR to play a major role in bringing to scale
practices, technologies and institutions that
enable agriculture to meet triple goals of food
security, adaptation and mitigation. CGIAR
Climate Change Contact Points at each CGIAR
Research Center, will help ensure CCAFS is
appropriately linked to all Centers and CRPs.
ICRISAT is one of the very few CGIAR Centers
to have a structured and executed outreach and
scaling program. The breadth of ICRISAT’s
partnerships shows that currently about half of
our partnership funding went to CGIAR Centers,
and the other half to non-governmental
organizations, the private sector, universities and
national partners.
72. Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
witnessed a significant shift in its foreign
exchange transactions during the fiscal year
2022-23.
In context to the same tell us, If the RBI decides
to adopt an expansionist monetary policy, which
of the following would it not do –
(1) Cut and optimize the Statutory Liquidity
Ratio
(2) Increase the Marginal Standing Facility Rate
(3) Cut the Bank Rate and Repo Rate
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (2)
(D) All are correctAns: (C)
Exp: Expansionary policy is proceeded by RBI in
order to relax interest norms and to facilitate
more liquidity in the market to boost the
economy. It increased the purchasing power of
employees. It is also referred to as ‘easymoderate
policy’.
Measures taken in Expansionary and
Co Tool Contractionary
Policy
Expansio
nary
Policy
Cash Reserve
Ratio
Increase Decrease
Repo Rate Increase Decrease
SLR Increase Decrease
MSFR Increase Decreasentractionary Monetary Policy are as below-Tool Contractionary
73. The National Campaign for Updation and
Verification of People’s Biodiversity Register
(PBR) was launched in Goa, marking a
significant milestone in the documentation and
preservation of India’s rich biological diversity.
Consider the following statements regarding
Convention on Biological Diversity –
(1) The convention came into force on
December 29, 1993.
(2) India became a party to the convention on
February 18, 2000.
(3) At the present, there are 196 Parties to this
Convention.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (2) and (1)
(C) Only (3) and (2)
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A)
Exp: The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
was negotiated and signed by nations at the
Earth Summit at Rio de Janeiro in Brazil on June
5, 1992.
The convention came into force on December
29, 1993. India became a party to the convention
on February 18, 1994. At the present, there are
196 Parties to this Convention.
CBD is a legally binding treaty and has 3 main
objectives:
Conservation of biodiversity.
Sustainable use of the components of
biodiversity.
Fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising
out of the utilisation of genetic resources. The Secretariat of the CBD is based in Montreal,
Canada.
74. Recently, the healthcare challenges faced by
tribal communities in India have come into
focus.
Consider the following statements regarding
Status of Tribal Communities in India –
(1) Out of the total Schedule Tribe population,
approximately 2.6 million (2.5%) belong to
“Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups”
(PVTGs) known as the “Primitive Tribes”.
(2) A certain of tribal communities in India are
recognized as Scheduled Tribes (STs) under
Article 342 of the Constitution of India.
(3) Draupadi Murmu is India’s first tribal
President.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (2)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (3) and (1)
(D) All are correct
Ans: (D)
Exp: Tribal communities in India constitute a
significant portion of the country’s population,
accounting for approximately 8.9%.
Out of the total Schedule Tribe population,
approximately 2.6 million (2.5%) belong to
“Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups”
(PVTGs) known as the “Primitive Tribes” – the
most disadvantaged of all the Schedule Tribe
communities.
Certain tribal communities in India are
recognized as Scheduled Tribes (STs) under
Article 342 of the Constitution of India.
They are entitled to special provisions and
safeguards for their social, economic,
educational, and political development.
Their interests are safeguarded by various laws
and policies such as the 5th and 6gh Scheduled
areas, Forest Rights Act 2006, and the PESA Act
1996.
They also have representation in the Parliament
and State Legislatures through reserved seats.
Draupadi Murmu is India’s first tribal President.
75. On May 28th 2023, the Prime Minister will
inaugurate the new Parliament building, which
is part of the Central Vista redevelopment
project.
Consider the following statements regarding
Sengol –
(1) It is associated with the Gupta Empire. (2) The golden sceptre was crafted by Vummidi
Bangaru Chetty.
(3) It is made of gold or silver and was often
decorated with precious stones.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) Only (1) and (2) (B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (3) and (1) (D) All are correct
Ans: (B)
Exp: The Sengol is profound in meaning, derived
from the Tamil word “Semmai”, it means
“Righteousness”. It was made of gold or silver
and was often decorated with precious stones.
It is associated with the Chola Empire, one of the
longest-ruling and most influential dynasties in
South India.
A golden sceptre was crafted by Vummidi
Bangaru Chetty, a famous jeweller in Madras
(now Chennai).
The Nandi, with its unyielding gaze as the
beholder of “Nyaya”, is hand-carved at the top.
Which of the following statements is true?
I. In feudal system creation of the lord-vassal
relationship between the feudal lord and his
overlord.
II. Feudal system very strong centralized
political authority and a very weak provincial
or local political authority.
Select the correct option
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (B)
Exp: Indian feudalism refers to the feudal society that
made up India’s social structure until The
Mughal Dynasty in the 1500s. The Guptas and
the Kushans played a major role in the
introduction and practice of feudalism in India,
and are examples of the decline of an empire
caused by feudalism. Use of the term feudalism
to describe India applies a concept of medieval
European origin, according to which the landed
nobility heldlands from the Crown in exchange
for military service, and vassals were in turn
tenants of the nobles, while the peasants (villeins
or serfs) were obliged to live on their lord’s land
and give him homage, labor, and a share of the
produce, notionally in exchange for military
protection. Feudalism is most likely
introduced to India when the Kushan Dynasty
from Central Asia invaded India and
introduced new policies of their own. Theterm Indian feudalism is used to describe
taluqdar, zamindar, jagirdar, ghatwals,
mulraiyats, sardar, mankari, deshmukh,
chaudhary and samanta.
76. Which of the following statements is true?
I. In feudal system creation of the lord-vassal
relationship between the feudal lord and his
overlord.
II. Feudal system very strong centralized
political authority and a very weak provincial
or local political authority.
Select the correct option
(A) Only I (B) Only II
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (B)
Exp: Indian feudalism refers to the feudal society that
made up India’s social structure until The
Mughal Dynasty in the 1500s. The Guptas and
the Kushans played a major role in the
introduction and practice of feudalism in India,
and are examples of the decline of an empire
caused by feudalism. Use of the term feudalism
to describe India applies a concept of medieval
European origin, according to which the landed
nobility heldlands from the Crown in exchange
for military service, and vassals were in turn
tenants of the nobles, while the peasants (villeins
or serfs) were obliged to live on their lord’s land
and give him homage, labor, and a share of the
produce, notionally in exchange for military
protection. Feudalism is most likely
introduced to India when the Kushan Dynasty
from Central Asia invaded India and
introduced new policies of their own. The term Indian feudalism is used to describe
taluqdar, zamindar, jagirdar, ghatwals,
mulraiyats, sardar, mankari, deshmukh,
chaudhary and samanta.
77. Which of the following statements is true?
I. The Rowlatt Act was based on the
recommendations of the ‘Sedition Committee’.
II. In Rowlatt Satyagraha, Gandhiji tried to
utilize the Home Rule League.
Select the correct option
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (C)
Exp: This act was passed on the recommendations of
Sedition Committee chaired by Sir Sidney
Rowlatt. This act had been hurriedly passed in
the Imperial Legislative Council despite the
united opposition of the Indian members. The
acts allowed certain political cases to be tried
without juries and permitted internment of
suspects without trial.
In organizing his satyagraha Gandhi tried to
utilize three types of political networks – The
Home Rule Leagues, Certain pan islamist groups
and a satyagraha sabha which he himself started
in Bombay on 24 February.
78. Which of the following statements is true?
I. Congress Socialist Party, it advocated the
boycott of British goods and the evasion of
taxes.
II. Congress Socialist Party it wanted to
establish the dictatorship of the proletariat.
Select the correct option
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (D)
Exp: The Congress Socialist Party (CSP) was a
socialist caucus within the Indian
National Congress. It was founded in 1934 by
Congress members who rejected what they
saw as the anti-rational mysticism of Gandhi
as well as the sectarian attitude of the
Communist Party of India towards the
Congress. Influenced by Fabianism as well as
Marxism-Leninism, the CSP included
advocates of armed struggle or sabotage (such
as Yusuf Meherally, Jai Prakash Narayan, and
Basawon Singh (Sinha) as well as those who
insisted upon ahimsa or nonviolent resistance (such as Acharya Narendra Deva). The CSP
advocated decentralized socialism in which
co-operatives, trade unions, independent
farmers, and local authorities would hold a
substantial share of the economic power. JP
Narayan and Minoo Masani were released
from jail in 1934. JP Narayan convened a
meeting in Patna on 17 May 1934, which
founded the Bihar Congress Socialist Party.
He was a Gandhian Socialist. Narayan became
general secretary of the party and Acharya
Narendra Deva became president.
79. Which of the following statements is true?
I. The Government of India Act of 1919
clearly defined the jurisdiction of the central
and provincial governments.
II. The arrival of Babur into India led to the
introduction of the arch and dome in the
region’s architecture.
Select the correct option
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (A)
Exp: The Government of India Act 1919 was an Act
of the Parliament of the United Kingdom. It was
passed to expand participation of Indians in the
government of India. The Act embodied the
reforms recommended in the report of the
Secretary of State for India, Edwin Montagu, and
the Viceroy, Lord Chelmsford.
80. Which of the following statements is true?
I. Harihara I founded Vijayanagara empire on
the south bank of a tributary to river Krishna.
II. The first Muslim President of the Indian
National Congress was Badruddin Tyabji.
Select the correct option
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (C)
Exp: Harihara I was the founder of the
Vijayanagara empire, which he ruled from
1336 to 1356 CE. He and his successors formed
the Sangama dynasty, the first of four
dynasties to rule the empire.
Badruddin Tyabji was the first Indian to practice
as a barrister of the High Court of Bombay who
served as the third President of the Indian
National Congress. He was one of the founding members and first Muslim president of Indian
National Congress.
81. Which of the following statements is true?
I. Banjaras during the medieval period of
Indian history were generally traders.
II. James Prinsep had first deciphered the
edicts of Emperor Ashoka.
Select the correct option
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (C)
Exp: Banjaras during the medieval period of Indian
history were generally traders. The Banjaras
were the most important trader-nomads.
Emperor Jahangir wrote in his memoirs that the
Banjaras carried grain on their bullocks from
different areas and sold it in towns. They
transported food grain for the Mughal army
during military campaigns.
James Prinsep was an English scholar, orientalist
and antiquary. He was the founding editor of the
Journal of the Asiatic Society of Bengal and is
best remembered for deciphering the Kharosthi
and Brahmi scripts of ancient India. James
Prinsep had first deciphered the edicts of
Emperor Ashoka.
82. 82. Which of the following statements is true?
I. The `Swadeshi’ and ‘Boycott’ were adopted
as methods of struggle for the first time during
the agitation against the Partition of Bengal.
II. The concept of Bodhisattva is central to the
Hinayana sect of Buddhism.
Select the correct option
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & IIAns. (A)
Exp: Partition of Bengal, (1905), division of Bengal
carried out by the British viceroy in India, Lord
Curzon, despite strong Indian nationalist
opposition. The `Swadeshi’ and ‘Boycott’ were
adopted as methods of struggle for the first time
during the agitation against the Partition of
Bengal.
In Buddhism, a bodhisattva is any person who is
on the path towards Buddhahood. In Mahayana
Buddhism, a bodhisattva refers to anyone who
has generated bodhicitta, a spontaneous wish and
compassionate mind to attain Buddhahood for
the benefit of all sentient beings.
83. Which of the following statements is true?
I. The term Araghatta’ refers to waterwheel
used in the irrigation of land.
II. In January 1917, Mohandas Karamchand
Gandhi returned to his homeland after two
decades of residence abroad.
Select the correct option
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (A)
Exp: Araghatta is a Persian wheel used in irrigation in
medieval India.It is a mechanical device used to
life water. It uses animal power to lift water from
sources, especially from open wells. The animals
used here are cattle, bullocks, etc. Araghatta is
made of ara + ghatta, ara means spoke and
ghatta means pot.
In January 1915, Mohandas Karamchand
Gandhi returned to his homeland after two
decades of residence abroad. These years had
been spent for the most part in South Africa,
where he went as a lawyer, and in time
became a leader of the Indian community in
that territory. As the historian Chandran
Devanesan has remarked, South Africa was
“the making of the Mahatma”. It was in South
Africa that Mahatma Gandhi first forged the
distinctive techniques of non-violent protest
known as satyagraha, first promoted harmony
between religions, and first alerted uppercaste
Indians to their discriminatory treatment
of low castes and women.
84. Which of the following statements is true?
I. The Swadeshi movement leaders advocated
militant opposition to colonial rule, there was
a group of “Moderates” who preferred a more
gradual and persuasive approach.
II. The Swadeshi movement of 1905-07 had
greatly broadened its appeal among the middle
classes.
Select the correct option
(A) Only I (B) Only II
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (C)
Exp: The Swadeshi movement, part of the Indian
independence movementand the developing
Indian nationalism, was an economic strategy
aimed at removing the British Empire from
power and improving economic conditions in
India by following the principles of swadeshiwhich had some success. Strategies of the
Swadeshi movement involved boycotting British
products and the revival of domestic products
and production processes B.C Bhole identifies
five phases of the Swadeshi movement.
1850 to 1904: developed by leaders like
Dadabhai Naoroji, Gokhale, Ranade, Tilak, G.
V. Joshi and Bhaswat K. Nigoni. This was
also known as First Swadeshi Movement.
1905 to 1917: Began in 1905, because of the
partition of Bengal ordered by Lord Curzon.
1918 to 1947: Swadeshi thought shaped by
Gandhi, accompanied by the rise of Indian
industrialists.
1948 to 1991: Widespread curbs on
international and inter-state trade. India
became a bastion of obsolete technology
during the licence-permit raj.
85. Which of the following statements is true?
I. A galaxy (large number of stars) starts to
form by accumulation of helium gas.
II. The formation of stars is believed to have
taken place some 5-6 Billion years ago.
Select the correct option.
(A) Only I (B) Only II
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (C)
Exp: The distribution of matter and energy was not
even in the early universe. These initial density
differences gave rise to differences in
gravitational forces and it caused the matter to
get drawn together. These formed the bases for
development of galaxies. A galaxy contains a
large number of stars. Galaxies spread over vast
distances that are measured in thousands of lightyears.
A galaxy starts to form by accumulation
of hydrogen gas in the form of a very large cloud
called nebula. Eventually, growing nebula
develops localized clumps of gas. These clumps
continue to grow into even denser gaseous
bodies, giving rise to formation of stars. The
formation of stars is believed to have taken
place some 5-6 billion years ago.
86. Which of the following statements is true?
I. All seismic waves are mechanical waves and
require medium to propagate.
II. All the planets were formed in the same
period sometime.
Select the correct option
(A) Only I (B) Only II
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (A)
Exp: Seismic waves are waves of energy that travel
through the Earth’s layers, and are a result of
earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, magma
movement, large landslides and large man-made
explosions that give out low-frequency acoustic
energy. Seismic wave fields are recorded by a
seismometer, hydrophone (in water), or
accelerometer.
The propagation velocity of the waves depends
on density and elasticity of the medium. Velocity
tends to increase with depth and ranges from
approximately 2 to 8 km/s in the Earth’s crust, up
to 13 km/s in the deep mantle. The refraction or
reflection of seismic waves is used for research
into the structure of the Earth’s interior, and manmade
vibrations are often generated to
investigate shallow, subsurface structures.
87. Which of the following statements is true?
I. Jute industry made a beginning in 1855 with
the establishment of a jute mill in the Hooghly
Valley near Kolkata with foreign capital and
entrepreneurship.
II. Coal mining was first started at Raniganj in
1772 while Railways were introduced in 1854.
Select the correct option.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (C)
Exp: The modern industrial development in India
started with the establishment of the first cotton
textile mill at Mumbai in 1854, predominantly
with Indian capital and entrepreneurship.
Jute industry made a beginning in 1855 with the
establishment of a jute mill in the Hooghly
Valley near Kolkata with foreign capital and
entrepreneurship. Coal mining was first started
at Raniganj in 1772. Railways were introduced
in 1854.
Tata Iron and Steel Plant was set up at
Jamshedpur in 1907. Several other medium
and small size industries like cement, glass,
soaps, chemicals, jute, sugar and paper
followed. The industrial production in preindependence
period was neither adequate nor
diversified.
88. Which of the following statements is true? I. Sugar Industry is a consumer industry.
II. Paper is a small-scale industry.
Select the correct option.
(A) Only I (B) Only II
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (A)
Exp: Finished products of Consumer goods industry
are directly used by individuals. Iron and steel
and Petro-chemicals industries are basic goods
industries because the finished products of basic
industry are used as raw material for other
industries. Chittranjan Locomotives is a public
sector industry because it is owned managed by
government of India.
Small scale industries are labour intensive yet
require little capital. Small scale industries can
be either manufacturing industries or service
providers. Small scale industries comprise of
small enterprises that manufacture goods or
provide services with the help of smaller
machines and a few workers and employees.
89. Which of the following statements is true?
I. Textile industry is comprises of cotton
textile, woollen textile, silk textile, synthetic
fibres, jute fibres etc.
II. Textiles have been a major component of the
industrial sector which accounts for nearly a fifth
of the industrial output and a third of the export
earnings.
Select the correct option.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (C)
Exp: Textile industry is the largest industry in the
organized sector. It comprises of (i) cotton
textiles, (ii) woolen textiles, (iii) silk textiles (iv)
synthetic fibres and (v) jute textile industries.
Textiles have been a major component of the
industrial sector. It accounts for nearly a fifth of
the industrial output and a third of the export
earnings. In term of employment, it comes next
only to agriculture sector.
90.Which of the following statements is true?
I. The upper Brahmaputra valley is known
Silver.
II. The numbers cotton textile mills increased
from 378 in 1952 to 1782 by March 1998.
Select the correct option.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (B)
Exp: The numbers of mills increased from 378 in
1952 to 1782 by March 1998. Cotton textiles
have an important place in the economy of the
country. It provides employment opportunities
to a large number of people. About one fifth of
the total industrial labour is absorbed by this
industry.
Outside of these mineral belts, upper
Brahmaputra valley is a significant petroleum
producing area whereas Kerala possesses
enormous concentration of heavy mineral
sands. Outside these above-mentioned areas
minerals deposits are very poor, scattered and
reserves are inconsistent.
91. Which of the following statements is true?
I. In India, emphasis is being laid on setting
thermal and super thermal power station on or
near the coal fields and electricity generated is
supplied to far off places through transmission
lines.
II. The bulk of the Indian coal reserves are of
rather poor quality and the requirements of
coking coal met through the imports from other
countries.
Select the correct option.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (C)
Exp: Unfortunately, the bulk of the Indian coal
reserves are of rather poor quality. We meet part
of our coking coal requirements through import.
In India, emphasis is being laid on setting
thermal and super thermal power station on or
near the coal fields and electricity generated is
supplied to far off places through transmission
lines. At one time Indian railways were the
largest consumer of coal. Since they have
switched on to the use of diesel and
electricity, they are no more the direct
consumer of coal.
92. Which of the following statements is true?
I. Madhya Pradesh states has the second
largest coal fields in India after Jharkhand.
II. Out of the total coal reserves and production
in India, Gondwana coal fields contribute 98%
and the rest 2% is produced by tertiary coal
fields. Select the correct option.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (B)
Exp: Coal in India occurs in two important types of
coal fields. They are the Gondwana coal fields
and Tertiary coal fields. Out of the total coal
reserves and production in India, Gondwana coal
fields contribute 98% and the rest 2% is
produced by tertiary coal fields.
The Gondwana coal fields are located in the
sedimentary rock systems of lower Gondwana
Age. They are distributed chiefly in the river
velleys of the Damodar (Jharkhand – West
Bengal); the Son (Madhya Pradesh–
Chhatisgarh); the Mahanadi (Orissa), the
Godavari (Andhra Pradesh) and the Wardha
(Maharashtra).
Tertiary coalfields occur in the extra-peninsular
areas which include Assam, Meghalaya,
Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh, Jammu &
Kashmir and Sikkim. Besides lignite or brown
coal are found in coastal areas of Tamil Nadu,
Gujarat and in land basins of Rajasthan.
In Madhya Pradesh, coal deposits are found in
Sidhi, Shahdol and Chhindwara districts.
Singrauli coalfield in Shadhol and Sidhi districts
is the largest in the state. In Andhra Pradesh, coal
occurs in the district of Adilabad, Karimnagar,
Warangal, Khammam and West Godavari. In
Orissa, Talcher is an important coal field.
Other coal field are in Sambalpur and
Sundargarh districts. In Maharashtra the coal
fields are found in the districts of Chandrapura,
Yeotmal and Nagpur.
93. Which of the following statements is true?
I. The net sown area and the area sown more
than once together are called gross cultivated
area.
II. In India, about 47 per cent of total reporting
area is under the net sown area.
Select the correct option.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (C)
Exp: The total land area on which crops are grown in
a region is called net sown area. The net sown
area and the area sown more than once together
are called gross cultivated area. In India, about47 per cent of total reporting area is under the net
sown area.
94. Which of the following statement (s) is/are
true?
I. The distribution of powers between the
Centre and the States in the Indian
Constitution is based on the scheme provided
in the Government of India Act, 1935.
II. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of
an adjournment motion is to allow a
discussion on a definite matter of urgent public
importance.
Select the correct option.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (C)
Exp: The Government of India Act 1935 was an Act
of the Parliament of the United Kingdom. It
originally received Royal assent in August 1935.
Until 1999, it was the longest Act of (British)
Parliament ever enacted. The Greater London
Authority Act 1999 surpassed it in length.
Because of its length, the Act was retroactively
split by the Government of India Act, 1935 into
two separate Acts:
The Government of India Act, 1935, having
321 sections and 10 schedules.
The Government of Burma Act, 1935 having
159 sections and 6 schedules.
Adjournment motion is the procedure for
adjournment of the business of the House for
the purpose of discussing a definite matter of
urgent public importance, which can be moved
with the consent of the speaker. Primary object
of an adjournment motion is to draw the
attention of Lok Sabha to a recent matter of
urgent public importance having serious
consequences and in regard to which a motion or
a resolution with proper notice will be too late.
95.Which of the following statement (s) is/are
true? The Directive Principles of State Policy.
I. Securing for all the workers reasonable
leisure and cultural opportunities.
II. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas.
Select the correct option.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (B)
Exp: The Directive Principles of State Policy of India
(DPSP) are the guidelines or 15 principles given
to the federal institutes governing the State of
India, to be kept in citation while framing laws
and policies. These provisions, contained in Part
IV (Article 36–51) of the Constitution of India,
are not enforceable by any court, but the
principles laid down there in are considered in
the governance of the country, making it the
duty of the State to apply these principles in
making laws to establish a just society in the
country. The principles have been inspired by
the Directive Principles given in the
Constitution of Ireland which are related to
social justice, economic welfare, foreign
policy, and legal and administrative matters.
Which of the following statement (s) is/are
true?
I. The President of India addresses the joint
sitting of both the Houses of Parliament at the
beginning of the first session after the formation
of the new Lok Sabha and at the beginning of the
96.first session of each year.
II. The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected
by the elected members of the Legislative
Assembly of the States and Union Territories by
a single transferable vote according to the
proportional representation method.
Select the correct option.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (C)
Exp: The President of India addresses the joint sitting
of both the Houses of Parliament at the
beginning of the first session after the formation
of the new Lok Sabha and at the beginning of the
first session of each year. The matters mentioned
in the President’s address addressed to both the
Houses are discussed in a Motion of Thanks
moved by a Member and supported by another
Member. The members of the Rajya Sabha are
elected by the elected members of the
Legislative Assembly of the States and Union
Territories by a single transferable vote
according to the proportional representation
method.
97. Which of the following statement (s) is/are
true? I. The office of the LokSabha Speaker, he
intends to resign, the letter of his/her
resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy
Speaker.
II. LokSabha Speaker holds the office during
the pleasure of the President.
Select the correct option.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (A)
On the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, although
the Speaker ceases to be a member of the House,
she does not vacate her office. The Speaker may,
at any time, resign from office by writing under
her hand to the Deputy Speaker.
98. Which of the following statement (s) is/are
true regarding the original jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court of India?
I. The Supreme Court decides such cases, if
there is a dispute between the Government of
India and one or more States.
II. The Supreme Court decides such cases, if
there is a dispute between two or more States.
Select the correct option.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (C)
Exp: Original jurisdiction of a court refers to a matter
for which the particular court is approached first.
In the case of the Supreme Court in India, its
original jurisdiction is covered under Article
131. It involves the following cases:
Ø Any dispute between the Indian
Government and one or more States.
Ø Any dispute between the Indian
Government and one or more States on one
side and one or more States on the other side.
Ø Any dispute between two or more States.
Ø Article 32 of the Constitution provides
original jurisdiction to the SC for matters
regarding the enforcement of Fundamental
Rights.
Ø The SC can issue writs, directions, or orders
including writs in the nature of mandamus,
habeas corpus, quo warranto, prohibition
and certiorari.
Ø The SC also has the power to direct the
transfer of a criminal or civil case from the
High Court in one State to the High Court in
another State. Ø It can also transfer cases from one
subordinate court to another State High
Court
Ø If the SC deems that cases involving the
same questions of law are pending before it
and one or more High Courts, and that these
are significant questions of law, it can
withdraw the cases before the High Court or
Courts and dispose off all these cases itself.
Ø The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
gives the SC the authority to initiate
international commercial arbitration.
99. Which of the following statement (s) is/are
true regarding The Government of India Act
1919?
I. Diarchy system was a system of double
government that was introduced by this act.
II. This act introduced separate communal
electorates for Muslims.
Select the correct option.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (A)
Exp: In the Government of India Act 1919, Diarchy
was introduced at the Provincial Level. Diarchy
means a dual set of governments; one is
accountable, the other is not accountable.
Subjects of the provincial government were
divided into two groups. One group was
reserved, and the other group was transferred.
The reserved subjects were controlled by the
British Governor of the province; the transferred
subjects were given to the Indian ministers of the
province.
In the Indian Councils Act 1909, a
momentous introduction in the reforms was
the separate electorates where seats were
reserved for Muslims and in which only
Muslims would be polled. The implication
that Muslims and their interests could only be
protected by Muslims would influence Indian
politics in the ensuing decades.
100. Which of the following statement (s) is/are
true?
I. A Minister who is a member of the Lok
Sabha has the right to speak and otherwise
participate in the proceedings of the Rajya
Sabha, but he doeII. Four methods are generally adopted for
voting in the Rajya Sabha: voice vote,
counting of votes, voting by automatic vote
recorders and division of votes in lobbies.
Select the correct option.
(A) Only
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (C)
II. Four methods are generally adopted for
voting in the Rajya Sabha: voice vote,
counting of votes, voting by automatic vote
recorders and division of votes in lobbies.
Select the correct option.
(A) Only I (B) Only II
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (C)
Exp: A Minister who is a member of the Lok Sabha
has the right to speak and otherwise participate
in the proceedings of the Rajya Sabha, but he
does not have the right to vote in the Rajya
Sabha. Four methods are generally adopted for
voting in the Rajya Sabha: voice vote, counting
of votes, voting by automatic vote recorders and
division of votes in lobbies.
101. Which of the following statement (s) is/are
true?
I. The result of an agreement among the
federating units is a feature of Indian
federalism.
II. The Fundamental Duties of an Indian
citizen a legislative process has been provided
to enforce these duties.
Select the correct option.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (A)
Exp: The salient features of federalism
include the existence of dual government at
the central and state level, separation of
powers, rigid and written constitution,
supremacy of the constitution, independence
of judiciary, etc. Provide for a comparison
between Indian federalism and the USA
federalism.
The Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles
of State Policy and Fundamental Duties are
sections of the Constitution of India that
prescribe the fundamental obligations of the
states to its citizens and the duties and the
rights of the citizens to the State. These
sections comprise a constitutional bill of
rights for government policy-making and the
behaviour and conduct of citizens. These
sections are considered vital elements of the
constitution, which was developed between
1947 and 1949 by the Constituent Assembly
of India.
102. Which of the following statement (s) is/are
true?
I. Preamble to the Constitution of India is
economic liberty.
II. Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact
that it calls into activity a band of dedicated
party workers.
Select the correct option.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (A)
Exp: The preamble of the Indian Constitution serves
as a brief introductory statement of the
Constitution that sets out the guiding purpose,
principles and philosophy of the Indian
Constitution. By 42nd Constitutional
Amendment, 1976, it was amended which
determined to constitute India into a Sovereign,
Socialist, Secular and Democratic Republic. It
secures justice, liberty, equality to all citizens of
India and promotes fraternity amongst the
people.
103. Which of the following statements is true?
I. Imperfect competition refers to any
economic market that does not meet the
rigorous standards of a hypothetical perfectly
or purely competitive market.
II. Macroeconomics is the social science that
studies the implications of human action.
Select the correct option.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (C)
Exp: Imperfect competition refers to any economic
market that does not meet the rigorous standards
of a hypothetical perfectly or purely competitive
market.
In this environment, companies sell different
products and services, set their own individual
prices, fight for market share and are often
protected by barriers to entry and exit.
Imperfect competition is common and can be
found in the following types of market
structures: monopolies, oligopolies,
monopolistic competition, monopsonies, and
oligopsonies.
Microeconomics is the social science that
studies the implications of human action,
specifically about how those decisions affect
the utilization and distribution of scarce resources. Microeconomics shows how and
why different goods have different values,
how individuals make more efficient or more
productive decisions, and how individual’s
best coordinate and cooperate with one
another. Generally speaking, microeconomics
is considered a more complete, advanced, and
settled science than macroeconomics.
104. Which of the following statements is true?
I. Budget Line is the name given to the graph
that shows all the combinations of two
commodities that a consumer can afford at
given market prices and within the particular
income level in economic terms.
II. Intermediate goods, producer goods or
semi-finished products are goods.
Select the correct option.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (C)
Exp: Budget line is to the graph that shows all the
combinations of two commodities that a
consumer can afford at given market prices and
within the particular income level in economic
terms. It is also called Budget constraint.
Intermediate goods, producer goods or semifinished
products are goods, such as partly
finished goods, used as inputs in the
production of other goods including final
goods. A firm may make and then use
intermediate goods, or make and then sell, or
buy then use them. In the production process,
intermediate goods either become part of the
final product, or are changed beyond
recognition in the process. This means
intermediate goods are resold among
industries.
105. Which of the following statements is true?
I. A stock is a debt instrument in which an
investor loans money to an entity.
II. Gottfried Haberler economist gave the
theory of Opportunity Cost.
Select the correct option.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (B)
Exp: Individuals, businesses and governments use
common types of debt instruments, such as
loans, bonds and debentures, to raise capital or generate investment income. Debt instruments
essentially act as an IOU between the issuer and
the purchaser.
Elaborating upon the opportunity cost, Haberler
writes that “the marginal cost of a given quantity
X of a commodity A must be regarded as that
quantity of commodity B which must be
foregone in order that X, instead of (X-1) units
of A can be produced.
106. Which of the following statements is true?
I. Treasury Bills are short term (up to one
year) borrowing instruments.
II. Uttar Pradesh is the largest dairy and milkproducing
state of India.
Select the correct option.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (C)
Exp: Treasury Bills are short term (up to one year)
borrowing instruments of the Government of
India which enable investors to park their shortterm
surplus funds while reducing their market
risk. They are auctioned by Reserve Bank of
India at regular intervals and issued at a discount
to face value.
The bill market is a sub-market of the money
market in India. There are two types of bills
viz. Treasury Bills and commercial bills.
While Treasury Bills or T-Bills are issued by
the Central Government; Commercial Bills
are issued by financial institutions.
Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Gujarat have
been the major milk producing states in India.
Uttar Pradesh is the largest dairy and milkproducing
state because it is home to the
highest buffalo population and the secondhighest
cattle population in the country.
107. Which of the following statements is true?
I. An indirect tax is collected by one entity in
the supply chain.
II. A indirect tax is paid directly by an
individual or organization to the imposing
entity.
Select the correct option.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (C)
Exp: An indirect tax is collected by one entity in the
supply chain (usually a producer or retailer) and paid to the government, but it is passed on to the
consumer as part of the purchase price of a
good or service. The consumer is ultimately
paying the tax by paying more for the product.
A direct tax is paid directly by an individual
or organization to the imposing entity. A
taxpayer, for example, pays direct taxes to the
government for different purposes, including
real property tax, personal property tax,
income tax, or taxes on assets.
108. Which of the following statements is true?
I. In monopoly market form, a market or an
industry is dominated by a single seller.
II. Employment is a measure of employment
and labor utilization in the economy.
Select the correct option.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (A)
Exp: A monopoly refers to when a company and its
product offerings dominate a sector or industry.
Monopolies can be considered an extreme result
of free-market capitalism in that absent any
restriction or restraints, a single company or
group becomes large enough to own all or nearly
all of the market (goods, supplies, commodities,
infrastructure, and assets) for a particular type
of product or service. The term monopoly is
often used to describe an entity that has total
or near-total control of a market.
Underemployment is a measure of
employment and labor utilization in the
economy that looks at how well the labor
force is being utilized in terms of skills,
experience and availability to work. Labor
that falls under the underemployment
classification includes those workers who are
highly skilled but working in low paying or
low skill jobs and part-time workers who
would prefer to be full-time.
109. Which of the following statements is true?
I. The free market is an economic system
based on supply and demand with little or no
government control.
II. Seasonal unemployment is the result of
employment transitions within an economy.
Select the correct option.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II Ans. (A)
Exp: The free market is an economic system based
on supply and demand with little or no
government control. It is a summary description
of all voluntary exchanges that take place in a
given economic environment. Free markets are
characterized by a spontaneous and
decentralized order of arrangements through
which individuals make economic decisions.
Based on its political and legal rules, a country’s
free market economy may range between very
large or entirely black market.
Frictional unemployment is the result of
employment transitions within an economy.
Frictional unemployment naturally occurs
even in a growing, stable economy. Workers
leaving their jobs or new workers entering the
workforce both add to frictional
unemployment. Frictional unemployment is
the result of employment transitions within an
economy.
Frictional unemployment naturally occurs
even in a growing, stable economy.
110. Which of the following statements is true?
I. Current account can be regarded as one of
the primary components of the balance of
payments of a nation.
II. The current account represents a country’s
imports and exports of goods and services
Select the correct option
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (B)
Exp: The current account represents a country’s
imports and exports of goods and
services, payments made to foreign investors,
and transfers such as foreign aid.
The current account may be positive (a
surplus) or negative (a deficit); positive means
the country is a net exporter and negative
means it is a net importer of goods and
services.
A country’s current account balance, whether
positive or negative, will be equal but
opposite to its capital account balance.
A capital account deficit shows that more
money is flowing out of the economy along
with increase in its ownership of foreign
assets and vice-versa in case of a surplus. The
balance of payments contains the current account (which provides a summary of the
trade of goods and services) in addition to the
capital account which records all capital
transactions.
111. Consider the following statements.
1. Intensity of sound at a point is inversely
proportional to its distance from the source.
2. Radio telescopes are better than optical
telescopes because they can work even in cloudy
conditions.
Which is/are correct statement?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) 1 and 2
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
Exp: The intensity of a sound is the power of the
sound in Watts divided by the area the sound
covers in square meters. It is measured in
decibels (dB). Intensity of sound is inversely
proportional to the square of the distance from
the source (I ∝ 1/d2).
Radio telescopes can be used day or night, they
are much less affected by cloudy skies, and they
open a new window to observe the Universe.
They allow us to observe astronomical objects at
a different wavelength than an optical telescope
112. Consider the following statements.
1. Mercury is commonly used as a thermometric
fluid rather than water because specific heat of
mercury is more than water.
2. The optical fiber works on the principle of
total internal reflection.
Which is/are correct statement?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) 1 and 2
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
Exp: Thermometric liquids are used in thermometers
to measure temperature. Mercury and alcohol are
common thermometric liquids.
The optical fibre is a device which works on the
principle of total internal reflection by which
light signals can be transmitted from one place
to another with a negligible loss of energy.
113. Consider the following statements.
1. Light from the star Alpha Centauri, which is
nearest to the earth after the sun, reaches the
earth in 42 second. 2. The light from the sun takes about 8 minutes
to reach the Earth after it has been emitted from
the sun’s surface.
Which is/are correct statement?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) 1 and 2
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
The nearest stars to Earth are in the Alpha
Centauri triple-star system, about 4.37 lightyears
away. One of these stars, Proxima
Centauri, is slightly closer, at 4.24 light-years.
114. Consider the following statements.
1. Stars appears to move from east to west
because the earth rotates from east to west.
2. Planets do not twinkle because they are very
far away from the earth resulting in decrease in
intensity of light.
Which is/are correct statement?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) 1 and 2
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)
Exp: Planets do not twinkle because, they are nearer
to earth and hence we receive a greater amount
of light and, therefore minor variations in the
intensity are not noticeable.
The stars appear to move from east to west
because of the rotation of the earth. The earth
rotates from west to east, around its axis. Hence,
stars appear to move from east to west.
115. Consider the following statements.
1. Metals are good conductors of electricity
because they contain free electrons.
2. Rectifiers are used to convert Direct current
to Alternating current.
Which is/are correct statement?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) 1 and 2
(D) None of these
Ans. (A)
Exp: Metals are good conductors because they consist
of lattice of atoms with free electrons. The free
electrons allow a current to flow through. When
a negative charge is applied at one end, the
electrons are repelled from the negative charge,
and move towards the other end.
A rectifier is a electrical device that converts
alternating current to direct current, a process
known as rectification. Rectifiers are used as
components of power supplies and as detectors
of radio signals. Rectifiers may be made of solidstate solidstate
diodes, vacuum tube diodes, mercury arc
valves, and other technologies.
116. Consider the following statements.
1. Magnetism at the ‘centre of a bar magnet’ is
maximum.
2. The magnetic properties of materials are
mainly due to the magnetic moments of their
atoms’ orbiting electrons.
Which is/are correct statement?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) 1 and 2
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)
Exp: Magnetism is strongest at north and south poles
of the magnet and weakest at the “centre of a bar
magnet”. This is because the “magnetic field
lines” run parallel to the length of the magnet at
the centre and run closer and denser at the poles.
The magnetic properties of materials are mainly
due to the magnetic moments of their atoms’
orbiting electrons. The magnetic moments of the
nuclei of atoms are typically thousands of times
smaller than the electrons’ magnetic moments, so
they are negligible in the context of the
magnetization of materials.
117. Consider the following statements.
1. RADAR is used for detection of buried artifact
and also used by geologist for earthquake
detection.
2. RADAR are used for detection, tracking and
surveillance purposes and also in weapon control
and missile guidance
Which is/are correct statement?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) 1 and 2
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
Exp: Radar is a detection system that uses radio waves
to determine the range, angle, or velocity of
objects. It can be used to detect aircraft, ships,
spacecraft, guided missiles, motor vehicles,
weather formations, and terrain. A radar system
consists of a transmitter producing
electromagnetic waves in the radio or
microwaves domain, a transmitting antenna, a
receiving antenna and a receiver and processor
to determine properties of the object.
118. Consider the following statements.
1. The absorption of ink by blotting paper
involves viscosity action phenomenon. 2. Capillary action helps us naturally by
pumping out tear fluid in the eye.
Which is/are not correct statement?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) 1 and 2
(D) None of these
Ans. (A)
Exp: The absorption of ink by blotting paper involves
capillary action phenomenon because the
blotting paper is a thin and a smooth paper which
allows a little thicker liquid like ink to absorb.
Capillary action helps us naturally by pumping
out tear fluid in the eye. This process cleanses
the eye and clears all of the dust and particles that
are around the ducts of the eye.
119 .Consider the following statements.
1. Nuclear sizes are expressed in a unit called
“Fermi” which is a unit of length equal to (10)−15
metre.
2. Mica is used in electrical equipment because
mica is a good conductor of heat but an electrical
insulator.
Which is/are not correct statement?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) 1 and 2
(D) None of these
Ans. (D)
Exp: mica is unusual in that it is a good electrical
insulator at the same time as being a good
thermal conductor. The leading use of block
mica is as an electrical insulator in electronic
equipment..
120. Which of the following statements is true?
I. Credit rationing is the limiting by lenders
of the supply of additional credit to borrowers.
II. Governments create debt by issuing
government bonds and bills.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor I
Ans. (A)
Exp: Credit rationing is the limiting by lenders of the
supply of additional credit to borrowers who
demand funds, even if the latter are willing to
pay higher interest rates. It is an example of
market imperfection, or market failure, as the
price mechanism fails to bring about equilibrium
in the market. It should not be confused with
cases where credit is simply “too expensive” for
some borrowers, that is, situations where the
interest rate is deemed too high.
121. Which of the following statements is true?
I. Carbon dioxide gas in its solid state is also
called dry ice.
II. Boron is a metalloid that is found in small
amounts in meteoroids.
Select the correct option.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (C)
Exp: Carbon dioxide is a chemical compound
composed of one carbon and two
oxygen atoms.
It is often referred to by its formula CO2.
It is present in the Earth’s atmosphere at a low
concentration and acts as a greenhouse gas.
In its solid state, it is called dry ice.
It is a major component of the carbon cycle.
Boron is a chemical element with the symbol
B and atomic number 5. Produced entirely by
cosmic ray spallation and supernovae and not
by stellar nucleosynthesis, it is a lowabundance
element in the Solar System and in
the Earth’s crust. Boron is concentrated on
Earth by the water-solubility of its more
common naturally occurring compounds, the
borate minerals. These are mined industrially
as evaporates, such as borax and kernite.
122. Which of the following statements is true?
I. Propanone is aldehyde.
II. Ethyl Acetate has a very strong aroma of
the fruit.
Select the correct option.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (C)
Exp: Propionaldehyde or propanal is the organic
compound with the formula CH3CH2CHO. It is
a saturated 3-carbon aldehyde and is a structural
isomer of acetone. It is a colorless liquid with a
slightly irritating, fruity odor.
Ethyl acetate is one of the simplest
carboxylate esters. (Former Molecule of the
Week methyl formate is the simplest.) The
colorless liquid has a sweet, fruity odor that
most people find pleasant.
123. Which of the following statements is true?
I. Iron is part of body.
II. Buckminsterfullerene is an allotrope of
Carbon. Select the correct option.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (C)
Exp: A fullerene is an allotrope of carbon whose
molecule consists of carbon atoms connected by
single and double bonds so as to form a closed
or partially closed mesh, with fused rings of five
to seven atoms. The molecule may be a hollow
sphere, ellipsoid, tube, or many other shapes and
sizes. Graphene (isolated atomic layers of
graphite), which is a flat mesh of regular
hexagonal rings, can be seen as an extreme
member of the family. Fullerenes with a closed
mesh topology are informally denoted by
their empirical formula Cn, often written
Cn, where n is the number of carbon atoms.
Iron is a mineral that our bodies need for
many functions. For example, iron is part of
hemoglobin, a protein which carries oxygen
from our lungs throughout our bodies. It helps
our muscles store and use oxygen. Iron is also
part of many other proteins and enzymes.
124. Which of the following statements is true?
I. Formic acid (HCO2H), also called
methanoic acid.
II. Aldehyde, any of a class of organic
compounds.
Select the correct option.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (C)
Exp: Formic acid (HCO2H), also called methanoic
acid, the simplest of the carboxylic acids, used
in processing textiles and leather. Formic acid
was first isolated from certain ants and was
named after the Latin formica, meaning “ant.” It
is made by the action of sulfuric acid upon
sodium formate, which is produced from carbon
monoxide and sodium hydroxide.
Aldehyde, any of a class of organic
compounds, in which a carbon atom shares a
double bond with an oxygen atom, a single
bond with a hydrogen atom, and a single bond
with another atom or group of atoms
(designated R in general chemical formulas
and structure diagrams). The double bond
between carbon and oxygen is characteristic
of all aldehydes and is known as the carbonyl
group.
125. Which of the following statements is true?
I. Sucrose, or table sugar, organic compound,
colourless sweet-tasting crystals.
II. Carbohydrates, a substance that acts as a
catalyst.
Select the correct option.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (A)
Exp: Sucrose, or table sugar, organic compound,
colourless sweet-tasting crystals that dissolve in
water. Sucrose (C12H22O11) is a disaccharide;
hydrolysis, by the enzyme invertase, yields
“invert sugar” (so called because the hydrolysis
results in an inversion of the rotation of plane
polarized light),
Enzyme, a substance that acts as a catalyst in
living organisms, regulating the rate at which
chemical reactions proceed without itself
being altered in the process. The biological
processes that occur within all living
organisms are chemical reactions, and most
are regulated by enzymes.
126. Which of the following statements is true?
I. ‘Ricket’ is a disease associated with the
deficiency of Vitamin (D).
II. Alessandro Giuseppe Antonio Anastasio
Volta was an Italian physicist, chemist, and
pioneer of electricity and power.
Select the correct option.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I &
II (D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (C)
Exp: Rickets is a bone disorder caused by a deficiency
of vitamin D, calcium, or phosphate Alessandro
Giuseppe Antonio Anastasio Volta was an
Italian physicist, chemist, and pioneer of
electricity and power who is credited as the
inventor of the electric battery and the discoverer
of methane. He invented the Voltaic pile in 1799,
and reported the results of his experiments in
1800 in a two-part letter to the President of the
Royal Society.
127. Which of the following statements is true?
I. Nitric acid acids is present in ant bites.
II. Calcium carbonate is a dietary supplement.
Select the correct option.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II Ans. (D)
Exp: An ant is known as formica in Latin. Thus, the
acid found in the red ant’s body is known as
formic acid.
Calcium carbonate is one of the most popular
chemicals. It is also found in many forms
such as marble, limestone, etc. Although they
are available in various forms, they are
chemically similar and only differ physically.
They are also referred to as calcite.
Calcium carbonate is a non-toxic and
odourless compound commonly found as a
white mineral which occurs naturally in chalks,
limestones and marbles.
128. Which of the following statements is true?
I. Nitrous Oxide’ is the chemical name of
laughing Gas.
II. Oxide, any of a large and important class
of chemical compounds.
Select the correct option.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (A)
Exp: Nitrous oxide (N2O), also called
dinitrogen monoxide, laughing gas, or nitrous,
one of several oxides of nitrogen, a colourless
gas with pleasant, sweetish odour and taste,
Oxide, any of a large and important class of
chemical compounds in which oxygen is
combined with another element.
129. Which of the following statements is true?
I. O2 is the liquefied gas most commonly
found in fire extinguishers.
II. Tear gas, formally known as a lachrymator
Select the correct option.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I & II
(D) Neither I nor II
Ans. (D)
Exp: Fire extinguishers contain different chemicals,
depending on the application. Handheld
extinguishers, which are commonly sold at
hardware stores for use in the kitchen or garage,
are pressurized with nitrogen or carbon dioxide
(CO2) to propel a stream of fire-squelching
agent to the fire.
Tear gas, formally known as a lachrymator
agent or lachrymator (from the Latin lacrima,
meaning “tear”), sometimes colloquially
known as mace.
130. Consider the following statements:
1. Canis lupus familiaris is the scientific name of
Dog.
2. Felis catus is the scientific name of Cat.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (C)
Exp: The scientific name of dog is Canis lupus
familiaris and cat Felis catus.
131. Consider the following statements:
1. Dolly Clone was an example of a chicken.
2. A snake is a animal with cold blood.
Which of the statements given above is / are
correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (B)
Exp: Snake animals belong to class reptiles. The
group also includes crocodiles, lizards and
turtles. Reptiles are cold-blooded animals that
reduce their body temperature by lying in the sun
or crawling in the shade.
Dolly was a female domestic sheep, and the first
mammal cloned from an adult somatic cell,
using the process of nuclear transfer.
132. Consider the following statements:
1. Presence of large amounts of nutrients in
waters also causes excessive growth of
planktonic algae.
2. Mollusca are the second largest animal
phylum.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (C)
Exp: Presence of large amounts of nutrients in water
causes excessive growth of planktonic (freefloating)
algae, called an algal bloom which
imparts a distinct colour to the water bodies.
The phylum Mollusca is the second-largest
animal phylum, with over 100,000 species. The
molluscs include many familiar animals,
including clams, snails, slugs, and squid,
133. Consider the following statements: 1. The amount of light entering the eye is
regulated by pupil.
2. Convex lens are used for the correction of
astigmatism.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (C)
Exp: The colored part of the eye which helps regulate
the amount of light entering the eye. When there
is bright light, the iris closes the pupil to let in
less light. And when there is low light, the iris
opens up the pupil to let in more light. Focuses
light rays onto the retina.
134. Consider the following statements:
1. Human body’s main organ of balance is
located in inner part of ear.
2. Any chemical which causes loss of sensation
is called Anesthetic.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (C) Exp: Humon body main organ of balance is found
inside the inner ear. It is made up of three
semicircular canals and two otolith organs,
known as the utricle and the saccule.
Which causes loss of sensation is called
Anesthetic.
135.Consider the following statements:
1. Algae are of two types –Unicellular and
Multicellular algae.
2. Unicellular algae are of two types Mobile and
Non mobile algae.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (C)
Exp: Inclu
Every year on April 23, World Book and
Copyright Day is observed to celebrate the
importance of books as a link between the past
and the present or to connect generations and
cultures.
Match the following books and their author –
(a) Akhil Sharma 1- An Obedient Father
(b) Alexander Doma 2- PlagueExp: Included organisms range from unicellularmicroalgae, such as Chlorella and the diatoms, tomulticellular forms, such as the giant kelp.
Match The Following
1. Every year on April 23, World Book and
Copyright Day is observed to celebrate the
importance of books as a link between the past
and the present or to connect generations and
cultures.
Match the following books and their author –
(a) Akhil Sharma 1- An Obedient Father
(b) Alexander Doma 2- Plague
(c) Akhilesh Tilotia 3- The Making of India
(d) Albert Camus 4- Three Marketiars
Options-
(A) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(C) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
Ans: (A)
Exp: Akhil Sharma – An Obedient Father
Alexander Doma – Three Marketiars
Akhilesh Tilotia – The Making of India
Albert Camus – Plague
2. Match the following International Cricket
Stadiums –
(a) ArunJaitley Ground 1- Delhi
(b) Brabourne Stadium 2- Mumbai
(c) Green Park Stadium 3- Kanpur
Options
(A) a-1, b-2, c-3
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1
(C) a-3, b-2, c-1
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2
Ans: (A)
Exp: ArunJaitley Ground – Delhi
Brabourne Stadium – Mumbai
Green Park Stadium – Kanpur
3. A book titled ‘The Yoga Sutra for Children’
authored by Roopa Pai.
Match the following books and authors –
(a) Premendra Mitra 1- Protidhwoni Fere
(b) Qurratulain Hyder 2- Aag Ka Dariya
(c) R.K. Narayan 3- Adha Gaon
(d) Rahi Masoom Reza 4- Swami And Friends
Options-
(A) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(C) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
Ans: (C)
Exp: Premendra Mitra – Protidhwoni Fere
Qurratulain Hyder – Aag Ka Dariya
R.K. Narayan – Swami And Friends
Rahi Masoom Reza – Adha Gaon
4Match the following Mineral with their top
producers –
(a) IRON ORE 1- Karnataka
(b) MANGANESE 2- Maharashtra
(c) NICKEL 3- Jharkhand
Options
(A) a-1, b-2, c-3
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1
(C) a-3, b-2, c-1
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2
Ans: (A)
Exp: IRON ORE – Karnataka
MANGANESE – Maharashtra
NICKEL – Jharkhand.
5. Match the following Mineral with their top
producers –
(a) IRON ORE 1- Karnataka
(b) MANGANESE 2- Maharashtra
(c) NICKEL 3- Jharkhand
Options
(A) a-1, b-2, c-3 (B) a-2, b-3, c-1
(C) a-3, b-2, c-1 (D) a-1, b-3, c-2
Ans: (A)
Exp: IRON ORE – Karnataka
MANGANESE – Maharashtra
NICKEL – Jharkhand
5. The Election Commission of India has
announced a new initiative for elderly and
specially-abled voters to cast their votes from
home in Karnataka, as the assembly elections
draw closer.
Match the following Articles related to Elections
(a) 324 1- Superintendence, direction and
control of elections to be vested in
an Election Commission.
(b) 327 2- Power of Parliament to make
provision with respect to elections
to Legislatures.
(c) 328 3- Power of Legislature of a State to
make provision with respect to
elections to such Legislature.
(d) 329 4- Bar to interference by courts in
electoral matters.
Options-
(A) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(C) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
Ans: (C)
Exp: 324 – Superintendence, direction and control of
elections to be vested in an Election
Commission.
327 – Power of Parliament to make provision
with respect to elections to Legislatures.
328 – Power of Legislature of a State to make
provision with respect to elections to such
Legislature.
329 – Bar to interference by courts in electoral
matters.
6.Match the following dance forms –
(a) Bihar 1- Jata Jatin(b) Goa 2- Fugdi
(c) Jharkhand 3- Karma
Options
(A) a-1, b-2, c-3
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1
(C) a-3, b-2, c-1
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2
Ans: (A)
Exp: Bihar – Jata Jatin
Goa – Fugdi
Jharkhand – Karma
7. Match the following Father of Nation of
Different Countries –
(a) Afghanistan 1- Ahmad Shah Durrani
(b) Bangladesh 2- Sir John A Macdonald
(c) Canada 3- Sheikh Mujibur Rahman
(d)United
States
4- George Washington
Options-
(A) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(C) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
Ans: (D)
Exp: Afghanistan – Ahmad Shah Durrani
Bangladesh – Sheikh Mujibur Rahman
Canada – Sir John A Macdonald
United States – George Washington
8. Match the following Famous Sports
Personalities in India-
(a) Prakash Padukone 1- Badminton
(b) Dingko Singh 2- Boxing
(c) Tarundeep Rai 3- Archery
Options
(A) a-1, b-2, c-3
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1
(C) a-3, b-2, c-1
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2
Ans: (A)
Exp: Prakash Padukone – Badminton
Dingko Singh – Boxing
Tarundeep Rai – Archery
9. Match the following Father of Various Fields of
India and World –
(A) Father of Veterinary
Science
1- Shalihotra
(B) Father of Wheat
Revolution
2- Dilbagh Singh
Athwal
(C) Father of the Indian
Seed Industry
3- Sushruta
(D) Father of Surgery 4- B R Barwale
Options-
(A) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(C) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
Ans: (D)
Exp: Father of Veterinary Science – Shalihotra
Father of Wheat Revolution – Dilbagh Singh
Athwal
Father of the Indian Seed Industry – B R Barwale
Father of Surgery – Sushruta
10. Match the following Father of different fields in
the world –
(A) Father of Relativity 1- Albert Einstein
(B) Father of Telephone 2- Alexander
Graham Bell
(C) Father of DNA
Fingerprinting
3- Alec John
Jeffreys
Options
(A) a-1, b-2, c-3
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1
(C) a-3, b-2, c-1
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2
Ans: (A)
Exp: Father of Relativity – Albert Einstein
Father of Telephone – Alexander Graham Bell
Father of DNA Fingerprinting – Alec John
Jeffreys
11. Match the following Folk Dances of India –
(a) Assam 1- Bagurumba
(b) Gujarat 2- Kunitha
(c) Karnataka 3- Tippani Juriun
(d) Odisha 4- Painka
Options-
(A) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(C) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
Ans: (D)
Exp: Assam – Bagurumba
Gujarat – Tippani Juriun
Karnataka – Kunitha
Odisha – Painka
12. Match the following Books and Authors –
(a) Kathasaritsagar 1- Somdeva
(b) Kamasutra 2- Vatsayana
(c) Prashnottarmalika 3- Amoghavarsha
Options
(A) a-1, b-2, c-3
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1
(C) a-3, b-2, c-1
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2
Ans: (A)
Exp: Kathasaritsagar – Somdeva
Kamasutra – Vatsayana
Prashnottarmalika – Amoghavarsha
13. Match the following states and their bird
sanctuaries -(a) Jharkhand 1- Udhuwa Lake Bird
Sanctuary
(b) Karnataka 2- Ghataprabha Bird
Sanctuary
(c) Maharashtra 3- Kitam Bird Sanctuary
(d) Sikkim 4- Mayani Bird Sanctuary
Options-
(A) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(C) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
Ans: (C)
Exp: Jharkhand – Udhuwa Lake Bird Sanctuary
Karnataka – Ghataprabha Bird Sanctuary
Maharashtra – Mayani Bird Sanctuary
Sikkim – Kitam Bird Sanctuary
14. Match the following –
(a) First Indian Woman to
Booker Prize
1- Arundhati
Roy
(b) First Woman Musician
to get Bharat Ratna
2- MS
Subbalakshmi
(c) First Indian Woman to
win WTA Title
3- Sania Mirza
Options
(A) a-1, b-2, c-3
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1
(C) a-3, b-2, c-1
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2
Ans: (A)
Exp: First Indian Woman to Booker Prize – Arundhati
Roy
First Woman Musician to get Bharat Ratna – MS
Subbalakshmi
First Indian Woman to win WTA Title – Sania Mirza
15. Match the following Articles –
(a) Article 14 1- Equality before the law.
(b) Article 15 2- Abolition of the
untouchability.
(c) Article 17 3- Prohibition of
discrimination.
(d) Article 18 4- Abolition of titles.
Options-
(A) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(C) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
Ans: (D)
Exp: Article 14- Equality before the law.
Article 15- Prohibition of discrimination.
Article 17- Abolition of the untouchability.
Article 18- Abolition of titles.
16. Match the following Directive Principal of states
Policy –
(a) Article 40 1- Organisation of village
panchayat
(b) Article 43 2- Living Wages, etc. for
Workers.
(c) Article 44 3- Uniform civil code.(
applicable in Goa only)
Options
(A) a-1, b-2, c-3
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1
(C) a-3, b-2, c-1
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2
Ans: (A)
Exp: Article 40- Organisation of village panchayat
Article 43- Living Wages, etc. for Workers.
Article 44- Uniform civil code.( applicable in
Goa only)
17. Match the following –
(a) Anup Sridhar 1- Badminton
(b) Dingko Singh 2- Squash
(c) Dola Banerjee 3- Archery
(d) Saurav Ghosal 4- Boxing
Options-
(A) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(C) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
Ans: (A)
Exp: Anup Sridhar – Badminton
Dingko Singh – Boxing
Dola Banerjee – Archery Saurav Ghosal – Squash
18. Match the following –
(a) Panchet Dam 1- Damodar River
(b) Tunga Bhadra Dam 2- Tungabhadra
River
(c) Linganamakki dam 3- Sharavathi River
Options
(A) a-1, b-2, c-3
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1
(C) a-3, b-2, c-1
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2
Ans: (A)
Exp: Panchet Dam – Damodar River
Tunga Bhadra Dam – Tungabhadra River
Linganamakki dam – Sharavathi River
19. Match the following –
Space Agency Country
(a) AEB 1- Brazil
(b) CMSA 2- Denmark
(c) CNES 3- France
(d) DASHE 4- ChinaOptions-
(A) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2 (B) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(C) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3 (D) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
Ans: (A)
Exp: AEB Brazil
CMSA China
CNES France
DASHE Denmark
20. Match the following –
Minerals State
(a) Coal 1- Andhra Pradesh
(b) Manganese 2- Jharkhand
(c) Asbestos 3- Odisha
(A) a-1, b-2, c-3
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1
(C) a-3, b-2, c-1
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2
Ans: (B)
Exp: Coal Jharkhand
Manganese Odisha
Asbestos Andhra Pradesh
21. Cancer vaccines poised to unlock ‘new
treatment paradigm’ with Merck/Moderna data.
Match the following disease with their vaccines
(a) Chickenpox 1- Varicella
(b) Diphtheria 2- DTaP and Tdap
(c) Mumps 3- Pertussis
(d) Whooping Cough 4- MMR
Options-
(A) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(C) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
Ans: (C)
Exp: Chickenpox – Varicella
Diphtheria – DTaP and Tdap
Mumps – MMR
Whooping Cough – Pertussis
22. Mizoram forms high-level committee to address
internally displaced persons from Manipur.
Match the following committees with their
purposes –
(a) Bhide
Committee
1- Coordination between
SFC’s and commercial banks
(b) C
Rangarajan
committee
2- Eliminating the poverty
scale of the country
(c) Cook
Committee
3- To check Capital adequacy
of banks
Options
(A) a-1, b-2, c-3
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1
(C) a-3, b-2, c-1
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2Ans: (A)
Exp: Bhide Committee Coordination between
SFC’s and commercial banks
C Rangarajan committee Eliminating the
poverty scale of the country
Cook Committee To check Capital
adequacy of banks
23. MT-4, the only tigress in Mukundra Hills Tiger
Reserve (MHTR), died during treatment with
three fully formed cubs still unborn in her womb.
Match the following Tiger Reserves in India –
(a) Madhya
Pradesh
1- Sanjay-Dubri Tiger
Reserve
(b) Telangana 2- Parambikulam Tiger
Reserve
(c) Kerala 3- Kawal Tiger Reserve
(d) Assam 4- Orang Tiger Reserve
Options-
(A) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(C) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
Ans: (D)
Exp: Madhya Pradesh – Sanjay-Dubri Tiger Reserve
Telangana – Kawal Tiger Reserve
Kerala – Parambikulam Tiger Reserve
Assam – Orang Tiger Reserve
24. UNESCO Builds Capacity for Giant Panda
National Park Managers in Sichuan Province
Match the following National Parks in India –
(a) Madhya
Pradesh
1- Van Vihar National Park
(b) Karnataka 2- Nagarhole National Park
(c) Assam 3- Orang National Park
Options
(A) a-1, b-2, c-3
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1
(C) a-3, b-2, c-1 (D) a-1, b-3, c-2
Ans: (A)
Exp: Madhya Pradesh – Van Vihar National Park
Karnataka – Nagarhole National Park
Assam – Orang National Park
25. Last month, 4,000 servicemen and
servicewomen from 13 nations converged on the
MOD Hebrides Range in Scotland to partake in
a crucial NATO exercise, code-named
FORMIDABLE SHIELD.
Match the following Defence Exercises –
(a) MALABAR 1- India, United
States, Japan(b) COBRA-GOLD 2- South Asian
Region Nations
(c) Samvedna 3- Asia-Pacific
Countries
(d) MILAN 4- 40 Countries and
their high-level
delegations
Options-
(A) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(C) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
Ans: (D)
Exp: MALABAR – India, United States, Japan
COBRA-GOLD – Asia-Pacific Countries
Samvedna – South Asian Region Nations
MILAN – 40 Countries and their high-level
Delegations
26. Amy E Pope has been elected as the next
Director General of the International
Organization for Migration (IOM).
Match the following International Organizations
and their heads –
(a) World Wide Fund
for Nature
1- Marco Lambertini
(b) World Anti-
Doping Agency
2- Witold Bańka
(c) Bank for
International
Settlements
3- Agustín Carstens
Options
(A) a-1, b-2, c-3
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1
(C) a-3, b-2, c-1
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2
Ans: (A)
Exp: World Wide Fund for Nature – Marco
Lambertini
World Anti-Doping Agency – Witold Bańka
Bank for International Settlements – Agustín
Carstens
27. Match the following First in India (Male) –
(a) First Speaker of
the Lok Sabha
1- Ganesh Vasudev
Mavalankar
(b) First Vice-
President of India
2- Sardar Vallabha
Bhai Patel
(c) First Education
Minister
3- Abul Kalam Azad
(d) First Home
Minister of India
4- Dr Radhakrishnan
Options-
(A) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(C) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4Ans: (A)
Exp: First Speaker of the Lok Sabha – Ganesh
Vasudev Mavalankar
First Vice-President of India – Dr Radhakrishnan
First Education Minister – Abul Kalam Azad
First Home Minister of India – Sardar Vallabha
Bhai Patel
28. Match the following First in India (Female) –
(a) First Indian Woman to
swim across English Channel
1- Arati Saha
(b) First Indian Woman to
climb Mt Everest
2- Bachendri
Pal
(c) First Indian Woman to
become Miss World
3- Miss Reita
Faria
Options
(A) a-1, b-2, c-3
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1
(C) a-3, b-2, c-1
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2
Ans: (A)
Exp: First Indian Woman to swim across English
Channel – Arati Saha
First Indian Woman to climb Mt Everest –
Bachendri Pal
First Indian Woman to become Miss World –
Miss Reita Faria
29. Poet-diplomat Abhay K’s book ‘Nalanda’, the
acquisition of which has been announced by
Penguin Random House India, delves into the
history of the ancient seat of learning in Bihar.
Match the following books and their authors –
(a) Rahul
Sankrityayan
1- Volga Se Ganga
(b) Ram Mohan
Roy
2- A Gift of Monotheists
(c) Ramapada
Chowdhury
3- Rashmirathi
(d) Ramdhari
Singh Dinkar
4- Ban Palashir Padabali
Options-
(A) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(C) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
Ans: (C)
Exp: Rahul Sankrityayan – Volga Se Ganga
Ram Mohan Roy – A Gift of Monotheists
Ramapada Chowdhury – Ban Palashir Padabali
Ramdhari Singh Dinkar – Rashmirathi
30. The Archeological Survey of India has
reportedly found the remains of a lostcivilisation, a “modern society” that existed in
Bandhavgarh National in Madhya Pradesh.
Match the following caves in India –
(a) Uttarakhand 1- Patal Bhuvaneshwar
(b) Orissa 2- Udayagiri and
Khandagiri Caves
(c) Himachal
Pradesh
3- Masrur Rock Cut
Temple
Options
(A) a-1, b-2, c-3
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1
(C) a-3, b-2, c-1
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2
Ans: (A)
Exp: Uttarakhand – Patal Bhuvaneshwar
Orissa – Udayagiri and Khandagiri Caves
Himachal Pradesh – Masrur Rock Cut Temple
31. Birbaha Hansda, Minister of the state in-charge
of Forest department, Government of West
Bengal has announced that the state Forest
department will take initiative to set up a zoo in
the midst of Raiganj Kulik Bird Sanctuary in
North Dinajpur district.
Match the following Bird Sanctuary of India –
(a) Nagaland 1- Khonoma Nature
Conservation and Tragopan
Sanctuary
(b) Odisha 2- Harike Lake Bird Sanctuary
(c) Punjab 3- Nalabana Bird Sanctuary
(d)
Rajasthan
4- Keoladeo National
Park/Bharatpur Bird
Sanctuary
Options-
(A) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(C) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
Ans: (D)
Exp: Nagaland – Khonoma Nature Conservation and
Tragopan Sanctuary
Odisha – Nalabana Bird Sanctuary
Punjab – Harike Lake Bird Sanctuary
Rajasthan – Keoladeo National Park/Bharatpur
Bird Sanctuary
32. International Dance Day is celebrated every year
on April 29 to raise awareness of different dance
forms and encourage people to participate in
dancing activities.
Match the following Folk Dances of India –
(a) Assam 1- Maharas
(b) Haryana 2- Khor
(c) Karnataka 3- KunithaOptions
(A) a-1, b-2, c-3
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1
(C) a-3, b-2, c-1
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2
Ans: (A)
Exp: Assam – Maharas
Haryana – Khor
Karnataka – Kunitha
33. 113 migratory birds of 37 species ringed at
Jayakwadi bird sanctuary
Match the following Bird Sanctuary of India –
(a) Raiganj Wildlife
Sanctuary
1- West Bengal
(b) Jhilmil Jheel
Conservation Reserve
2- Uttar
Pradesh
(c) Lakh Bahosi Bird
Sanctuary
3- Uttarakhand
(d) Point Calimere Bird
Sanctuary
4- Tamil Nadu
Options-
(A) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(C) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
Ans: (D)
Exp: Raiganj Wildlife Sanctuary – West Bengal
Jhilmil Jheel Conservation Reserve –
Uttarakhand
Lakh Bahosi Bird Sanctuary – Uttar Pradesh
Point Calimere Bird Sanctuary – Tamil Nadu
34. The Yogi government will showcase India’s rich
cultural heritage as Varanasi prepares to host the
G-20 Development Ministers’ Meeting.
Match the following Folk Dances of India –
(a) Lakshadweep 1- Parichakali
(b) Sikkim 2- Maruni Dance
(c) Tripura 3- Hojagiri
Options
(A) a-1, b-2, c-3
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1
(C) a-3, b-2, c-1
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2
Ans: (A)
Exp: Lakshadweep – Parichakali
Sikkim – Maruni Dance
Tripura – Hojagiri
35. The Ministry of AYUSH recently announced
that Ayush-64 will be available free of cost for
mild, moderate asymptomatic patients in Delhi.
Match the following ministries with their
ministers -(a) Ministry of
External Affairs
1- Subrahmanyam
Jaishankar
(b) Ministry of
Finance
2- Nirmala
Sitharaman
(c) Ministry of Food
Processing
Industries
3- Harsh Vardhan
(d) Ministry of
Health and Family
Welfare
4- Narendra Singh
Tomar
Options-
(A) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(C) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
Ans: (C)
Exp: Ministry of External Affairs
Subrahmanyam Jaishankar
Ministry of Finance Nirmala Sitharaman
Ministry of Food Processing Industries
Narendra Singh Tomar
Ministry of Health and Family Welfare Harsh
Vardhan
36. The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmer Welfare
recently announced that the area of summer
crops has sharply increased by 21.58% as
compared to 2020.
Match the following crops with their season –
(a) Wheat, barley, peas 1- Rabi
(b) Rice, maize, jowar 2- Kharif
(c) Seasonal fruits, vegetables,
fodder crops
3- Zaid
Options
(A) a-1, b-2, c-3
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1
(C) a-3, b-2, c-1
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2
Ans: (A)
Exp: Rabi Wheat, barley, peas, gram, mustard etc.
Kharif Rice, maize, jowar, bajra, tur, moong,
urad, cotton, jute, groundnut, soybean etc.
Zaid Seasonal fruits, vegetables, fodder crops
etc.
37. Match the following Bird Sanctuary of India –
(a) Goa 1- Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary
(b) Haryana 2- Kadalundi Bird Sanctuary
(c) Jharkhand 3- Udhuwa Lake Bird
Sanctuary
(d) Kerala 4- Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary
Options-
(A) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(C) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4Ans: (A)
Exp: Goa – Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary
Haryana – Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary
Jharkhand – Udhuwa Lake Bird Sanctuary
Kerala – Kadalundi Bird Sanctuary
38. Match the following Folk Dances of India –
(a) Bihar 1- Jata-Jatin
(b) Kerala 2- Kathakali
(c) Goa 3- Tarangamel
Options
(A) a-1, b-2, c-3
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1
(C) a-3, b-2, c-1
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2
Ans: (A)
Exp: Bihar – Jata-Jatin
Kerala – Kathakali
Goa – Tarangamel
39. Sam Pitroda is known as the Father of Yellow
Revolution in India.
Match the following –
(a) Father of Pink
Revolution
1- Durgesh Patel
(b) Father of Silver
Revolution
2- Nirpakh Tutaj
(c) Father of Gold
Revolution
3- Indira Gandhi
(d) Father of Red
Revolution
4- Vishal Tewari
Options-
(A) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(C) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
Ans: (D)
Exp: Father of Pink Revolution – Durgesh Patel
Father of Silver Revolution – Indira Gandhi
Father of Gold Revolution – Nirpakh Tutaj
Father of Red Revolution – Vishal Tewari
40. Kerala High Court Directs Sports Council To
Reconsider Application Of Candidate Who
Failed To Show Activeness In Sport After 2002.
Match the following Terminology in Sports –
(a) Football 1- Right Out
(b) Badminton 2- Double Fault
(c) Baseball 3- Strike
Options
(A) a-1, b-2, c-3
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1
(C) a-3, b-2, c-1
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2
Ans: (A)
Exp: Football – Right Out
Badminton – Double FaultBaseball – Strike
41. Lieutenant Governor of Ladakh, Brigadier (Dr)
BD Mishra (Retired), today held a meeting with
the Departmental Secretaries at Raj Niwas to
review the progress of their respective
departments.
Match the following Mountain Passes of India –
(a) Sela Pass 1- Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Shipki La 2- Himachal Pradesh
(c) Gyong La 3- Uttarakhand
(d) Sin La 4- Jammu and Kashmir
Options-
(A) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(C) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
Ans: (C)
Exp: Sela Pass – Arunachal Pradesh
Shipki La – Himachal Pradesh
Gyong La – Jammu and Kashmir
Sin La – Uttarakhand
42. Intelligence agencies have used AI since the cold
war – but now face new security challenges
Match the following Intelligence Agencies of
the World –
(a) Central External
Liaison Department
1- China
(b) Australian Security and
Intelligence Organisation
2- Australia
(c) Bureau of State
Security
3- South Africa
Options
(A) a-1, b-2, c-3
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1
(C) a-3, b-2, c-1
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2
Ans: (A)
Exp: Central External Liaison Department – China
Australian Security and Intelligence
Organisation – Australia
Bureau of State Security – South Africa
43. The index of mineral production of mining and
quarrying sector for the month of February, 2023
(Base: 2011-12=100) at 129.0, is 4.6% higher as
compared to the level of February, 2022.
Match the following minerals with their top
producers –
(a) Iron Ore 1- Orissa
(b) Manganese 2- Madhya Pradesh
(c) Gold 3- Andhra Pradesh
(d) Diamond 4- Maharashtra
Options-(A) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(C) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
Ans: (A)
Exp: Iron Ore – Orissa
Manganese – Maharashtra
Gold – Andhra Pradesh
Diamond – Madhya Pradesh
44. Match the following Father of Various Fields –
(a) Father of Modern
Education
1- John Amos
Comenius
(b) Father of Modern
Democracy
2- John Locke
(c) Father of
Artificial Intelligence
3- John Mccarthy
Options
(A) a-1, b-2, c-3
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1
(C) a-3, b-2, c-1
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2
Ans: (A)
Exp: Father of Modern Education – John Amos
Comenius
Father of Modern Democracy – John Locke
Father of Artificial Intelligence – John Mccarthy
45. Indian author Ruskin Bond wrote a book titled
“The Golden Years: The Many Joys of Living a
Good Long Life”.
Match the following Books and Authors –
(a) Amit Dasgupta 1- India for A Billion
Reasons
(b) Amitav Ghosh 2- Circle of the
Region
(c) Aravind Adiga 3- The Elephant Bird
(d) Arfea Tehsin 4- The White Tiger
Options-
(A) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(C) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
Ans: (C)
Exp: Amit Dasgupta – India for A Billion Reasons
Amitav Ghosh – Circle of the Region
Aravind Adiga – The White Tiger
Arfea Tehsin – The Elephant Bird
46. President Droupadi Murmu urges tribal women
to come forward to reap benefits of govt
schemes.
Match the following government scheme –
(a) Bachat Lamp Yojana 1- 2009
(b) Deendayal Disabled
Rehabilitation Scheme(c) Deen Dayal
Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti
Yojana
3- 2015
Options
(A) a-1, b-2, c-3
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1
(C) a-3, b-2, c-1
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2
Ans: (A)
Exp: Bachat Lamp Yojana – 2009
Deendayal Disabled Rehabilitation Scheme –
2003
Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana –
2015
47. ISRO has recently successfully tested Low
Altitude Escape Motor of Crew Escape System
of Gaganyaan project.
Match the following Space Centres in India –
(a) Mumbai 1- ISRO Liaison office
(b) Nagpur 2- Space Application Centre
(c) Mount Abu 3- Infrared Observatory
(d)
Ahmedabad
4- Central RRSC-Regional
Remote Sensing Centre
Options-
(A) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(C) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
Ans: (A)
Exp: Mumbai – ISRO Liaison office
Nagpur – Central RRSC-Regional Remote
Sensing Centre
Mount Abu – Infrared Observatory
Ahmedabad – Space Application Centre
48. Match the following Waterfalls in India –
(a) Budhakholo Falls 1- Odisha
(b) Agasthiyar Falls 2- Tamil Nadu
(c) Kuntala Waterfall 3- Telangana
Options
(A) a-1, b-2, c-3
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1
(C) a-3, b-2, c-1
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2
Ans: (A)
Exp: Budhakholo Falls – Odisha
Agasthiyar Falls – Tamil NaduKuntala Waterfall – Telangana
49. A new study has found that melting Antarctic ice
is slowing one of the world’s significant deep
ocean currents, which could have a widereaching
impact on marine ecosystems.
Match the following Major Seas and their
greatest known depth –
(a) Mediterranean Sea 1- Cape Matapan
(b) Caribbean Sea 2- Buldir Island
(c) South China Sea 3- West of Luzon
(d) Bering Sea 4- Cayman Islands
Options-
(A) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(C) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
Ans: (A)
Exp: Mediterranean Sea – Cape Matapan
Caribbean Sea – Cayman Islands
South China Sea – West of Luzon
Bering Sea – Buldir Island
50. International Council on Monuments and Sites
recommends the abode of Nobel Laureate poet
Rabindranath Tagore for inclusion in the list.
Match the following UNESCO World Heritage
Sites in India –
(a) The JantarMantar 1- Rajasthan
(b) Nalanda University 2- Tamil Nadu
(c) Mountain Railways
of India
3- Bihar
Options
(A) a-1, b-2, c-3
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1
(C) a-3, b-2, c-1
(D) a-1, b-3, c-2
Ans: (D) Exp: The JantarMantar – Rajasthan
Nalanda University – Bihar
Mountain Railways of India – Tamil Nadu
Exp: The JantarMantar – Rajasthan
Nalanda University – Bihar
Mountain Railways of India – Tamil Nadu
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Recently, the Supreme Court (SC) have
observed that bills sent to the governor for assent
must be returned “as soon as possible” and not
sit over them, causing Gubernatorial
Procrastination and making state Legislative
Assemblies wait indefinitely. In context to the
qualifications required for the appointment of
judges, which of the following is incorrect?
(A) He should have been a judge of a High Court
for 5 years.
(B) He should have been an advocate of a High
Court for at least 10 years.
(C) He should be a distinguished jurist in the
opinion of the president.
(D) The Constitution has prescribed a minimum
age of 35 years for appointment as a judge of the
Supreme Court.
Ans: (D)
Exp: Qualifications Required for the Appointment of
Judges –
A person to be appointed as a judge of the
Supreme Court should have the following
qualifications:
He should be a citizen of India.
He should have been a judge of a High Court (or
high courts in succession) for five years; or
He should have been an advocate of a High
Court (or High Courts in succession) for ten
years; or
He should be a distinguished jurist in the opinion
of the president.
The Constitution has not prescribed a minimum
age for appointment as a judge of the Supreme
Court.
2. The Indian government has implemented several
measures to promote balanced fertilisation.
Despite these efforts, the consumption of urea
has risen, leading to imbalanced fertilisation,
decreased nitrogen use efficiency, and a decline
in crop yield response to fertiliser use. In context
to the same tell us, why does the Government of
India promote the use of “Neem-coated Urea” in
agriculture?
(A) Release of Neem oil in the soil increases
nitrogen fixation by the soil microorganisms.
(B) Neem coating slows down the rate of
dissolution of urea in the soil. (C) Nitrous oxide, which is a greenhouse gas, is
not at all released into atmosphere by crop fields.
(D) It is a combination of a weedicide and a
fertilizer for particular crops.
Ans: (B)
Exp: Qualifications Required for the Appointment of
Judges –
A person to be appointed as a judge of the
Supreme Court should have the following
qualifications:
He should be a citizen of India.
He should have been a judge of a High Court (or
high courts in succession) for five years; or
He should have been an advocate of a High
Court (or High Courts in succession) for ten
years; or
He should be a distinguished jurist in the opinion
of the president.
The Constitution has not prescribed a minimum
age for appointment as a judge of the Supreme
Court.
3. World Malaria Day is observed every year on
25th April. Widespread resistance of malarial
parasite to drugs like chloroquine has prompted
attempts to develop a malarial vaccine to combat
malaria. Why is it difficult to develop an
effective malaria vaccine?
(A) Malaria is caused by several species of
Plasmodium
(B) Man does not develop immunity to malaria
during natural infection
(C) Vaccines can be developed only against
bacteria
(D) Man is only an intermediate host and not the
definitive host
Ans: (B)
Exp: It is difficult to develop an effective malaria
vaccine because repeated natural infection does
not produce detectable resistance to the exoerythrocytic
cycle of malaria in man.
Malaria is typically transmitted through the bite
of an infected Anopheles mosquito.
Infected mosquitoes carry the Plasmodium
parasite.
When this mosquito bites, the parasite is released
into the bloodstream. Different species of Plasmodium (P. vivax, P.
malaria, and P. falciparum) are responsible for
different types of malaria.
Of these, malignant malaria caused by
Plasmodium falciparum is the most serious one
and can even be fatal.
4.Recently, the Supreme Court heard a plea by an
accused for clubbing the FIRs against him in
Bihar with those in Tamil Nadu. In context to the
same tell us, which of the following is not a
member of National Security Council?
(A) Ministers of External Affairs
(B) Minister of Finance
(C) Ministers of Home Affairs
(D) Minister of Railway
Ans: (D)
Exp: The NSC in India is a high-level body that
advises the Prime Minister of India on matters
related to national security, strategic policy, and
defense.
It is a three-tiered organization that oversees
political, economic, energy and security issues
of strategic concern.
The NSC is chaired by the Prime Minister.
It was formed in 1998, where all aspects of
national security are deliberated upon.
Members –
National Security Advisor (NSA)
Chief of Defence Staff (CDS)
Deputy National Security Advisors
Ministers of Defence
Ministers of External Affairs
Ministers of Home Affairs
Minister of Finance
Vice Chairman of the NITI Aayog
5. India’s ambitious Cheetah Translocation Project
is facing a new set of challenges as two cheetahs
have died, bringing the number of cheetahs left
in the project to 18 out of the initial 20. In context
to the same tell us, Which of the above is not
naturally found in India?
(A) Black-necked crane
(B) Cheetah
(C) Flying squirrel
(D) Snow leopard
Ans: (B)
Exp: Black-necked crane:
High altitude marshes and lakes of Tibetan
Plateau (Tibet, Qinghai, Xinjiang, Gansu), Sichuan (China), and eastern Ladakh (India) are
the known breeding grounds of black-necked
crane.
Flying squirrel:
The Indian Giant Flying Squirrel is one of the
largest flying squirrels, similar in size to the Red
Giant Flying Squirrel found in Northeast India
and East Asia at about 43cm long with a 50cm
tail.
Snow Leopard:
In India, their geographical range encompasses a
large part of the western Himalayas including the
states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal
Pradesh, Uttarakhand and Sikkim and Arunachal
Pradesh in the eastern Himalayas.
Cheetah:
Most wild cheetahs exist in fragmented
populations in pockets of Africa, occupying a
mere 9 percent of their historic range. In Iran,
fewer than 50 Asiatic cheetahs (a sub-species)
remain.
6. Union Minister Parshottam Rupala unveiled the
Nandi portal, aimed to accelerate the process of
granting No Objection Certificates for veterinary
drugs and vaccines in India. In context to the
same tell us, Which of the following are the
causes of Yellow Fungus infection?
(A) Poor hygiene
(B) Moisture and heat
(C) Contaminated food
(D) All of the above
Ans: (D)
Exp: Poor hygiene is the main cause of yellow fungus
infection. Apart from this uncontrolled diabetes,
steroid treatment for medical conditions,
weakened immune system, contaminated
environment, bad hygiene and habits or dirty
surroundings, co-morbidities potentially can
cause fungal infection.
7. The 8th Global Pharmaceutical Quality Summit
2023 held in Mumbai concluded successfully,
with a focus on patient-centric manufacturing
and quality practices. In context to
Pharmacology tell us, which among the
following drug can be obtained from flowers?
(A) Strychnine
(B) Tubocurarine
(C) Quinine
(D) Vincristine
Ans: (D)
Exp: Vinblastine and vincristine, the anticancer drugs,
are being isolated from the leaves of field grown
Catharanthus roseus plant by techniques such as tissue culture, cell culture, shoot culture, semi
synthesis as well as total synthesis.
Vincristine and vinblastine are the vinca
alkaloids which are isolated from the leaves of a
particular plant called Madagascar periwinkle
plant, whose scientific name is Catharanthus
roseus.
8. The Indian Economic Trade Organization
(IETO) has recently announced the appointment
of Nutan Roongta as the Director of the USA
East Coast Chapter. In context to economics tell
us, which of the following is an appropriate
description of disinflation?
(A) It is a slowdown in the rate of increase of the
general price level of goods and services.
(B) It is a sudden fall in the value of a currency
against other currencies.
(C) It is a persistent fall in the general price level
of goods and services.
(D) It is a steep increase in the price level of
export items.
Ans: (A)
Exp: The correct answer is It is a slowdown in the rate
of increase of the general price level of goods
and services.
Disinflation is a decrease in the rate of inflation
– a slowdown in the rate of increase of the
general price level of goods and services in a
nation’s gross domestic product over time.
It is the opposite of reflation. Disinflation occurs
when the increase in the “consumer price level”
slows down from the previous period when the
prices were rising.
9. The Indian Economic Trade Organization
(IETO) has recently announced the appointment
of Nutan Roongta as the Director of the USA
East Coast Chapter. In context to economics tell
us, which of the following is an appropriate
description of disinflation?
(A) It is a slowdown in the rate of increase of the
general price level of goods and services.
(B) It is a sudden fall in the value of a currency
against other currencies.
(C) It is a persistent fall in the general price level
of goods and services.
(D) It is a steep increase in the price level of
export items.
Ans: (A)
Exp: The correct answer is It is a slowdown in the rate
of increase of the general price level of goods
and services.
Disinflation is a decrease in the rate of inflation
– a slowdown in the rate of increase of the
general price level of goods and services in a
nation’s gross domestic product over time.
It is the opposite of reflation. Disinflation occurs
when the increase in the “consumer price level”
slows down from the previous period when the
prices were rising.
and Desodharaka Nageswararao), started the
movement in Madras.
She was arrested and imprisoned for her
involvement in a movement that had been
banned.
She was a member of the Constituent Assembly.
10. The Union Ministry of Environment has given
Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) clearance to
construct Dr Kalaignar pen monument.
“Muthamizh Arignar Dr Kalaignar Pen
Monument” is to be built in the memory of which
leader?
(A) M Karunanidhi
(B) M K Stalin
(C) M G Ramachandran
(D) J Jayalalithaa
Ans: (A)
Exp: During the meeting of the 12-member Expert
Appraisal Committee (EAC) of the Union
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate
Change, proposal to construct Muthamizh
Arignar Dr. Kalaignar pen monument in the Bay
of Bengal was cleared. The monument is
expected to be 30 meter high and spread over
nearly 8,551 square metres. The offshore
memorial is planned to be built on the memory
of the late DMK patriarch M Karunanidhi.
11. Odisha has complained to the Ministry of Jal
Shakti under the Inter-State River Water
Disputes (ISRWD) Act 1956 accusing
Chhattisgarh of misleading the Mahanadi Water
Disputes Tribunal (MWDT) by releasing water
in Mahanadi River in the Non-Monsoon Season.
In context to the river system in India tell us,
Which of the following important rivers of India
does not originate from the Western Ghats?
(A) Mahanadi
(B) Krishna
(C) Godavari
(D) Cauvery
Ans: (A)
Exp: The Western Ghats form one of the four
watersheds of India, feeding the perennial rivers
of India.
The major river systems originating in the
Western Ghats are Godavari, Kaveri, Krishna,
Thamiraparani and Tungabhadra.
Mahanadi does not originate from the Western
Ghats.
The Mahanadi river does not originate in the
Western Ghats. This river has its source in the northern foothills of Dandakaranya near Sihawa
in the Raipur district of Chhattisgarh.
12. Recently, the Supreme Court (SC) has decided
to examine the sexual harassment allegations
against Wrestling Federation of India’s (WFI)
President by women wrestlers, raising concerns
over Sports Governance in India. In context to
the wrestling tell us, the first organized national
wrestling tournament took place in which
country?
(A) Greece (B) USA
(C) UK (D) Germany
Ans: (A)
Exp: Amateur wrestling flourished throughout the
early years of the North American colonies and
would later serve as a popular activity at country
fairs, holiday celebrations, and in military
exercises. The first organized national wrestling
tournament in the United States took place in
New York City in 1888.
13. In a recent meeting held in New Delhi, India and
the four European countries that form the
European Free Trade Association (EFTA) have
expressed their willingness to resume their
negotiations for a Trade and Economic
Partnership Agreement (TEPA) that has been
stalled since 2018. In context to the same tell us,
which of the following country is not a member
of European Free Trade Association?
(A) Iceland
(B) France
(C) Norway
(D) Switzerland
Ans: (B)
Exp: EFTA is an intergovernmental organization that
was established in 1960 as an alternative trade
bloc for those European states that were unable
or unwilling to join the European Union (EU).
EFTA comprises Iceland, Liechtenstein,
Norway, and Switzerland, which are not part of
the EU but have access to its single market
through various agreements.
EFTA is India’s 9th largest trading partner,
accounting for about 2.5% of India’s total
merchandise trade in 2020-21.
The main items of India’s exports to EFTA are
textiles, chemicals, gems, and jewelry,
machinery, and pharmaceuticals.
The main items of India’s imports from EFTA
are machinery, chemicals, precious metals, and
medical instruments.
14. The Election Commission of India was criticized
for not being transparent and keeping political
parties out of the loop regarding defects in
VVPAT machines. In context to the same tell us,
what is the meaning of “A” in the abbreviation
of VVPAT?
(A) Audiometry
(B) Audience
(C) Audit
(D) Audiogram
Ans: (C)
Exp: Voter Verified Paper Audit Trail –
VVPAT is an independent verification printer
machine and is attached to electronic voting
machines. It allows voters to verify if their vote
has gone to the intended candidate.
When a voter presses a button in the EVM, a
paper slip is printed through the VVPAT. The
slip contains the poll symbol and name of the
candidate. It allows the voter to verify his/her
choice.
After being visible to the voter from a glass case
in the VVPAT for seven seconds, the ballot slip
will be cut and dropped into the drop box in the
VVPAT machine and a beep will be heard.
VVPAT machines can be accessed by polling officers only.
15.In the last two financial years, only 329 claims
for accident insurance cover provided to bank
account holders under the Pradhan Mantri Jan-
Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) have been settled out of
the 647 claims that were filed. In context to the
PMJDY tell us, An overdraft (OD) facility up to
how much to eligible account holders is
available?
(A) Rs 10,000 (B) Rs 08,000
(C) Rs 15,000 (D) Rs 20,000
Ans: (A)
Exp: PMJDY – National Mission for Financial
Inclusion, aims to ensure access to financial
services, namely, basic savings & deposit
accounts, remittance, credit, insurance, pension
in an affordable manner.
Under the scheme, a Basic Savings Bank
Deposit (BSBD) account can be opened in any
bank branch or Business Correspondent (Bank
Mitra) outlet, by persons not having any other
account.
There is no requirement to maintain any
minimum balance in PMJDY accounts and
interest is earned on the deposit in PMJDY
accounts. Rupay Debit card is provided to the PMJDY
account holder.
An overdraft (OD) facility up to Rs 10,000 to
eligible account holders is available.
16. The MCC World Cricket Committee has
selected legendary Indian cricketer Jhulan
Goswami as its member. In context to the same
tell us, Which country has won the ICC Women’s
T20 World Cup the most times?
(A) West Indies (B) England
(C) Australia (D) India
Ans: (C)
Exp: Australia has won the ICC Women’s T20 World
Cup the most 4 times (2010, 2012, 2014 and
2018).
17. In a significant step towards embracing
sustainable transportation, India is poised to
launch its first-ever hydrogen-powered train. In
context to the same tell us, The difference in
mass of a nucleus and its constituent nucleons is
called the ____________.
(A) Packing fraction
(B) Mass defect
(C) Binding energy
(D) Binding energy per nucleon
Ans: (B)
The difference in mass between a nucleus and its
constituent nucleons is known as the mass
defect, denoted by Δm.
The formula for calculating the mass defect
(Δm) is given by :
Δm = Zmp + (A-Z)mn – M
where:
Z is the atomic number of the nucleus,
A is the mass number of the nucleus,
mp is the mass of a proton,
mn is the mass of a neutron,
and M is the actual mass of the nucleus.
18. The field assessment of Swachcha Survekshan
2023 is going to be launched by the Ministry of
Housing and Urban Assessment from 1st July
2023. In context to the same tell us, which of the
following schemes has the purpose of a
“garbage-free city”?
(A) Swachh Bharat Mission – rural phase 2
(B) Swachh Bharat Mission – urban phase 2
(C) Swachh Bharat Mission – urban phase 1
(D) Swachh Bharat Mission Ans: (B)
(D) Swachh Bharat Mission – rural phase 1
Exp: Swachh Survekshan, 2022:
Swachh Survekshan has been conducted since
2016 and is the world’s largest urban sanitation
and cleanliness survey.
It has been instrumental in fostering a spirit of
healthy competition among towns and cities to
improve their service delivery to citizens and
towards creating cleaner cities.
It is conducted under the ambit of the Swachh
Bharat Mission (Urban).
19. Defence Research and Development
Organisation organised an ‘Anusandhaan
Chintan Shivir’. In context to DRDO tell us,
DRDO signed contract with which company to
develop ‘Air Independent Propulsion’?
(A) HAL (B) L&T
(C) Tata Power (D) Tesla
Ans: (B)
Exp: Larsen & Toubro (L&T) and the Defence
Research and Development Organisation
(DRDO) have signed a contract to develop two
Air Independent Propulsion (AIP) System
Modules for the Indian Navy’s Kalvari Class
submarines.
The AIP Modules have been developed by
DRDO’s Naval Materials Research Laboratory
(NMRL) in collaboration with L&T, which has
received the Transfer of Technology (ToT) for
this indigenous AIP System.
20. Diksha Dagar wins record second ladies
European tour event title. In context to sports tell
us, Avani Lekhara is associated with which one
of the following sports?
(A) Badminton
(B) Tennis
(C) Shooting
(D) Archery
Ans: (C)
Exp: Avani Lekhara is from Jaipur, Rajasthan.
As 19-year-old Avani Lekhara won the gold
medal in women’s 10 m air rifle Standing event
in the SH 1 category at the Tokyo Paralympics.
She became the first Indian woman to win a gold
medal at the Paralympics.
Avani shot 249.6 points in the R2 women’s 10m
air rifle SH1 category for a Paralympic Record
and equal the World Record.
Avani has won many World Cup medals since
2017 including a Silver with a Junior World
Record in R2 at the WSPS World Cup 2017, bronze at the WSPS World Cup Bangkok 2017
and silver in the WSPS World Cup in Croatia
2019.
21.The Union Minister for MSME recently
launched the revamped Credit Guarantee Fund
Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises
(CGTMSE) Scheme. In context to the same tell
us, CGTMSE Scheme was launched by the
Government of India in which year?
(A) 2000
(B) 2004
(C) 2006
(D) 2008
Ans: (A)
Exp: CGTMSE Scheme was launched in 2000 by the
Government of India (GoI) to make available
collateral-free credit to the micro and small
enterprise sector. Both the existing and the new
enterprises are eligible to be covered under the
scheme. The corpus of CGTMSE is contributed
by the GoI and SIDBI in the ratio of 4:1
respectively. The Ministry of MSMEs, and
Small Industries Development Bank of India
(SIDBI) established a trust named Credit
Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small
Enterprises (CGTMSE) to implement theCGTMSE Scheme.
22. Recently, the Supreme Court has issued a notice
to Delhi Police on a petition filed by wrestlers
seeking an FIR against the President of
Wrestling Federation of India (WFI), on
allegations of sexual harassment. In context to
the same tell us, The term FIR is defined in –
(A) Indian Penal Code
(B) Code of Criminal Procedure
(C) Constitution of India
(D) None of the above
Ans: (D)
Exp: First Information Report (FIR) is a written
document prepared by the police when they
receive information about the commission of a
cognizable offence.
It is a report of information that reaches the
police first in point of time and that is why it is
called the First Information Report.
It is generally a complaint lodged with the police
by the victim of a cognizable offence or by
someone on his/her behalf. Anyone can report
the commission of a cognizable offence either
orally or in writing. The term FIR is not defined in the Indian Penal
Code (IPC), Code of Criminal Procedure
(CrPC), 1973, or in any other law.
However, in police regulations or rules,
information recorded under Section 154 of CrPC
is known as First Information Report (FIR).
23. Recently, Geologists have discovered a
previously unknown layer between the core and
the mantle of the Earth, likely to be a thin but
dense sunken ocean floor. In the structure of
planet Earth, below the mantle, the core is
mainly made up of which one of the following?
(A) Aluminium
(B) Chromium
(C) Iron
(D) Silicon
Ans: (C)
Exp: The structure of the earth is divided into four
major components: the crust, the mantle, the
outer core, and the inner core.
The core of the Earth, which has both liquid and
solid components, is made mainly of iron,
nickel, and oxygen.
Earth’s outer core is a fluid layer about 2,400 km
thick.
Earth’s inner core is the innermost geologic layer
of the planet Earth. It is primarily a solid ball
with a radius of about 1,220 km, which is about
20% of Earth’s radius or 70% of the Moon’s
radius.
24. Recently, the Dimasa National Liberation Army
(DNLA) signed a Peace Agreement with the
Assam government and the Union Government.
Every year, a month long ecologically important
campaign/festival is held during which certain
communities/tribes plant saplings of fruitbearing
trees. Which of the following are such
communities/ tribes?
(A) Bhutia and Lepch
(B) Gond and Korku
(C) Irula and Toda
(D) Sahariya and Agariya
Ans: (B)
Exp: Every monsoon, the Gond and Korku tribes of
Madhya Pradesh’s Betul and Harda districts
celebrate Hari Jiroti.
It is a month-long festival of greenery, during
which the tribals plant saplings of fruit-bearing
trees.
Bhutia and Lepcha are the indigenous tribes of
Sikkim.
Irula and Toda are the tribals of Niligir hills in
Tamil Nadu. Sahariya and Agariya are the tribals mostly lived
in the state of Madhya Pradesh.
25. Recently, the Kurmi Community has called off
the agitation in Bengal, asking for the inclusion
in the ST (Scheduled Tribe) Status from Other
Backward Class (OBC). In context to the same
tell us, the provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth
Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in
order to –
(A) Protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
(B) Determine the boundaries between States
(C) Determine the powers, authority and
responsibilities of Panchayats
(D) Protect the interests of all the border States
Ans: (A)
Exp: The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with
the administration and control of scheduled areas
and scheduled tribes in any state except the four
states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and
Mizoram. The Sixth Schedule of the
Constitution, on the other hand, deals with the
administration of the tribal areas in the four
northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya,
Tripura and Mizoram. It protects the interest of
Schedule tribes.
26. TS Singh Deo was appointed Chhattisgarh
Deputy Chief Minister by Congress chief
Mallikarjun Kharge. In context to the same tell
us, Who was the first Chief Minister of United
Maharashtra?
(A) Vasantdada Patil
(B) Vasantrao Naik
(C) Shankarrao Chavan
(D) Yashwantrao Chavan
Ans: (D)
Exp: Yashwantrao Chavan was the first Chief
Minister of United Maharashtra.
He had served as Deputy PM of India during the
tenure of Charan Singh’s government.
He is famous as “Leader of Common People”.
He actively contributed to India’s independence.
He had served as Defence Minister in 1962
during India – China border conflicts after the
resignation of Krishna Menon.
27. Gas Authority of India Limited has been
conferred with Authorised Economic Operator
T3 status by the Central Board of Indirect Taxesand Customs. In context to the same tell us The
AEO program, administered by whom?
(A) World Customs Organization
(B) World Trade Organization
(C) International Monetary Fund
(D) FIATA International Federation
Ans: (A)
Exp: The AEO program, administered by the World
Customs Organization (WCO), aims to
strengthen global supply chain security,
streamline customs procedures, and promote the
ease of doing business. It provides a framework
for customs administrations to cooperate with
businesses and enhance compliance while
facilitating legitimate trade flows. By obtaining
the AEO T3 status, GAIL India joins the league
of esteemed companies that adhere to the highest
standards of customs compliance and
international trade best practices.
28. Canara Bank has become the first Public Sector
Bank in India to offer merchants the convenience
of making UPI payments through their RuPay
Credit Cards. In context to the same tell us, How
much shares the government hold in the Public
sector banks?
(A) Min 75%
(B) Min 51%
(C) Max 75%
(D) Max 51%
Ans: (B)
Exp: The government holds more than 51% of the
shares in public sector banks. The Reserve Bank
of India is the country’s top banking regulator
and its central banking institution.
29. Gujarat’s government and Micron Technology
have entered into a Memorandum of
Understanding to set up a semiconductor chip
manufacturing facility in Sanand, Gujarat. In
context to semiconductor tell us, What happens
to resistivity of semiconductor material when
temperature increases?
(A) Increases (B) Decreases
(C) Zero (D) Constant
Ans: (B)
Exp: With increase of temperature, the resistivity of a
semiconductor decreases.
30. IPS officer Ajay Bhatnagar appoints as Special
Director in the CBI. In context to the same tell
us, What is the tenure of director of Central
Bureau of Investigation?
(A) 5 years
(B) 4 years
(C) 3 years
(D) 6 years
Ans: (B)
Exp: Appointment of director of Central Bureau of
Investigation is done for 2 years as per the
Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003.
Appointment of director of Central Bureau of
Investigation is done by the committee under the
leadership of the Central Vigilance
Commissioner. The committee comprises of
Vigilance Commissioner, secretary of the Home
Ministry and secretary of the Cabinet Secretariat.
31. Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), NITI Aayog,
and the United Nations Capital Development
Fund (UNCDF) have jointly launched a
whitepaper aimed at making India a global
leader in Agri-Tech innovation. In context to the
same tell us, Atal Innovation Mission is set up
under the –
(A) Department of Science and Technology
(B) Ministry of Labour and Employment
(C) NITI Aayog
(D) Ministry of Skill Development and
Entrepreneurship
Ans: (C)
Exp: The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship
initiative set up by the NITI Aayog in 2016 to
promote innovation and entrepreneurship across
the length and breadth of the country. AIM’s
objective is to develop new programmes and
policies for fostering innovation in different
sectors of the economy, provide platforms and
collaboration opportunities for different
stakeholders, and create an umbrella structure to
oversee the innovation & entrepreneurship
ecosystem of the country.
32.Rajya Sabha chairman, Jagdeep Dhankar,
summoned John Brittas, CPI (M) MP, seeking an
explanation on a newspaper article in which the
latter made critical remarks about Union home
minister, Amit Shah. In context to the same tell
us, Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok
Sabha in which matter?
(A) The matter of creating new All India
Services
(B) Amending the Constitution
(C) The removal of the government
(D) Making cut motions
Ans: (B) Exp: Rajya Sabha enjoys certain special powers
compared to Lok Sabha which are as follows:
Power to transfer a subject from the State List to
Union List for a specified period (Article 249).
To create additional All India Services (Article
312).
To endorse Emergency under Article 352 for a
limited period when the Lok Sabha remains
dissolved.
A cut motion is a special power vested in
members of the Lok Sabha to oppose a demand
being discussed for specific allocation by the
government in the Finance Bill as part of the
Demand for Grants. If the motion is adopted, it
amounts to a no-confidence vote, and if the
government fails to jot up numbers in the lower
House, it is obliged to resign according to the
norms of the House.
33. The number of person days generated under
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment
Guarantee Act, 2005 (MGNREGA) in January
and February this year following the
implementation of an app-based attendance
system has gone down compared to previous
years. In context to the same tell us, Among the
following who are eligible to benefit from the
“Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment
Guarantee Act”?
(A) Adult members of only the scheduled caste
and scheduled tribe households.
(B) Adult members of below poverty line (BPL)
households.
(C) Adult members of households of all
backward communities.
(D) Adult members of any household.
Ans: (D)
Exp: Mahatma Gandhi Employment Guarantee Act
that was passed in September 2005: It is a social
security measure that aims to guarantee the ‘right
to work’.
34. Recently, U.S. Forces Korea has started to
upgrade its Terminal High-Altitude Area
Defense (THAAD) system deployed in Seongju,
a small county about 130 miles south of Seoul,
South Korea. In context to the same tell us, What
is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defence
(THAAD)”?
(A) An Israeli radar system
(B) India’s indigenous anti-missile programme(C) An American anti-missile system
(D) A defence collaboration between Japan and
South Korea
Ans: (C)
Exp: Terminal High Altitude Area Defence
(THAAD) is an American anti-missile system
designed to intercept and destroy short and
medium-range ballistic missiles during their
“terminal” phase of flight when they are falling
towards the target.
35. Satyashodhak Samaj is a social reform
movement that was founded by Mahatma
Jyotirao Phule in 1873. In context to the same
tell us, What was the aim of Satya Shodhak
Samaj organized?
(A) A movement for upliftment of tribals in
Bihar
(B) A temple-entry movement in Gujarat
(C) An anti-caste movement in Maharashtra
(D) A peasant movement in Punjab
Ans: (C)
Exp: Satyashodhak Samaj (Truth-seekers’ Society)
was a social reform society founded by Jyotiba
Phule in Pune, Maharashtra, on 24 September
1873. It espoused a mission of education and
increased social rights and political access for
underprivileged groups, focused especially on
women, Shudras, and Dalits, in Maharashtra.
36. Department of Telecommunications Announces
‘5G & Beyond Hackathon 2023’ to foster
Innovation and Development of Cutting-Edge
Solutions in the field of 5G technology. In
context to 5G tell us, which country launched the
world’s first fully-fledged 5G mobile networks?
(A) China
(B) Japan
(C) South Korea
(D) Singapore
Ans: (C)
Exp: South Korea launched the world’s first fullyfledged
5G mobile networks.
The superfast communications heralded by fifthgeneration
wireless technology will ultimately
underpin everything from toasters to telephones;
from electric cars to power grids.
It will bring smartphones near-instantaneous
connectivity — 20 times faster than the existing
4G.
Three top telecom providers SK Telecom, KT,
and LG Uplus began their 5G services. Experts say 5G will bring smartphones nearinstantaneous
connectivity will be 20 times
faster than 4G.
37.Geographical Indication Registry (Chennai,
Tamil Nadu-TN) under the Department of
Industry Promotion and Internal Trade (DIPIT),
Ministry of Commerce and Industry (MoCI), has
recognised 7 Handicrafts. In context to the same
tell us, Which of the following is matched
correctly?
(A) Tezpur Litchi: Nagaland
(B) Patan Patola: Gujarat
(C) Bhalia Wheat: West Bengal
(D) Bomkai Saree & Fabrics: Andhra Pradesh
Ans: (B)
Exp: Patola is a double ikat woven sari, made in Patan,
Gujarat. Patola Sarees are very expensive
because these Sarees are worn only by those
belonging to royal and aristocratic familiesduring the Monarchy regime in India.
38. Sporting legend and India’s first-ever Olympic
medallist in women’s boxing, Mary Kom, has
been honored with the Global Indian Icon of the
Year award. In context to sports tell us, Which
among the following is not correctly matched
pair? (Countries – National Game )
(A) USA – Baseball
(B) Pakistan – Field Hockey
(C) China – Table Tennis
(D) All are correct
Ans: (D)
Exp: Baseball is the national game of the USA.
Baseball is a bat-and-ball game played between
two opposing teams who take turns batting and
fielding.
Hockey is the national sport of Pakistan, and the
country has won both World Cup and Olympic
awards in this sport.
Table tennis, also known as ping pong, has been
considered as the national sport of the People’s
Republic of China. Since table tennis became an
official Olympic medal sport at Seoul 1988,
Chinese athletes have dominated the sport
winning 28 of a possible 32 gold medals up to
Rio 2016.
39. The Indian men’s national football team has
climbed up to the 100th rank on FIFA’s latest
world rankings surpassing teams like Lebanonand New Zealand to achieve the feat. In context
to the same tell us, which country hosted the
FIFA world cup 2022?
(A) Brazil
(B) Russia
(C) Qatar
(D) Dubai
Ans: (C)
Exp: FIFA World Cup 2022:
It was hosted by Qatar.
There were 32 teams participated in this world
cup.
This was the first World Cup to be held in the
Arab world.
40. Olympic gold medalist Neeraj Chopra obtained
the top spot in Lausanne Diamond League 2023
with a best throw of 87.66 m. In context to the
same tell us, What was the record for javelin
throw in Neeraj Chopra’s Olympics gold?
(A) 89.91m
(B) 85.62m
(C) 78.63m
(D) 87.58m
Ans: (D)
Exp: On 4 August 2021, Chopra made his debut at the
Olympics, representing India in the Japan
National Stadium. He topped his qualifying
group for entry to the final with a throw of 86.65
metres. Chopra won the gold medal in the final
on 7 August with a throw of 87.58 m in his
second attempt, becoming the first Indian
Olympian to win a gold medal in athletics, and
the first post-independence Indian Olympic
medalist in athletics.
41. In April, the India Meteorological Department
(IMD) forecast a normal monsoon for 2023, with
rains estimated at 96% of the long-term average.
In coontext to the agriculture tell us, Which
chemical is used to ripe mangoes?
(A) Calcium Sulphide
(B) Calcium carbide
(C) Calcium carbonate
(D) Calcium chloride
Ans: (B)
Exp: Calcium carbide (CaC2), a carcinogen, is widely
used for artificial ripening of mangoes. The
usage of CaC2 for mango ripening results in
serious health issues like neurological disorders,
ulcers, hypoxia, memory loss, etc. Ethylene is a
natural, safe and necessary phytohormone for
ripening. When fruits are artificially ripened,
they are assisted by the usage of ethylene gas. It
can be done safely by avoiding contact of the
ethylene-releasing substance with the fruit.
42. The 93 Infantry Brigade of the Indian Army
presented Volleyballs to Shaheed DySP Manjit
Singh Memorial Volleyball Club during a
function held at Poonch. In context to the same
tell us, The term “Smasher” is associated with
which sport?
(A) Hockey
(B) Boxing
(C) Volley Ball
(D) Cricket
Ans: (C)
Exp: The smash is the main attacking shot used in
volleyball and is probably one of the hardest
moves to master. The player who uses smash is
known as smasher. The smasher can vary the
smash by smashing cross court, down the line,
hitting of the block and hitting a controlled speed
block.
43. What is involved in traversing the entire file
system and marking everything that can be
accessed?
(A) Index pointer
(B) Garbage collection
(C) File system
(D) Stack pointer
Ans: (B)
Exp: Garbage collection involves traversing the entire
file system, marking everything that can be
accessed. Then, a second pass collects
everything that is not marked onto a list of free
space. Garbage collection for a disk-based file
system, however, is extremely time-consuming
and is thus seldom attempted.
44. Nylon Market Share Exhibits Expansion at a
Healthy 5.9% CAGR to Cross US$ 60.5 Billion
by 2033. In context to the same tell us, Nylon
threads are made of?
(A) Polyester polymer
(B) Polyamide polymer
(C) Polyvinyl polymer
(D) Polysaccharide
Ans: (B)
Exp: Nylon threads are polyamides. They are th
condensation polymers of diamines and dibasic
acids. With a high strength to weight ratio, nylon
is one of the strongest threads available, making
it a great choice for stitching upholstery, leather,
and vinyl. This bonded 3-ply nylon thread has
been specially treated to decrease friction while
sewing at high speeds, resulting in smooth
stitches.
45. Following the law and order situation in
Manipur, Northeast Frontier Railway has
stopped all Manipur-bound trains. In context tothe same tell us, The longest railway line in the
world connects –
(A) New York and Seattle
(B) Leningrad and Vladivostok
(C) Trivandrum and Guwahati
(D) Perth and Sydney
Ans: (B)
Exp: The Trans-Siberian Railway, a network of
railways connecting Moscow with the Russian
Far East, is the longest railway line in the world
with a length of 9,289 kilometres. The main
route of the Trans-Siberian Railway begins in
Moscow and connects Vladivostok via southern
Siberia.
46. India’s external debt saw a marginal rise to USD
624.7 billion by the end of March 2023,
accompanied by a decline in the debt-to-GDP
ratio. In context to the External Sector and
Currency Exchange rate tell us, which among the
following steps is least likely to be taken at the
time of an current account deficit?
(A) Impose trade barriers
(B) Increase exports
(C) Promote domestic manufacturing companies
(D) Revaluation of the currency
Ans: (D)
Exp: A country can reduce its existing debt by
increasing the value of its exports relative to the
value of imports.
It can place restrictions on imports, such as trade
barriers, tariffs or quotas, or it can emphasize
policies that promote export, such as import
substitution, industrialization, or policies that
improve domestic companies’ global
competitiveness.
The country can also use monetary policy to
improve the domestic currency’s valuation
relative to other currencies through devaluation,
which reduces the country’s export costs.
On the other hand, revaluation of the currency
makes exports expensive and imports cheaper,
which is detrimental to the fiscal health of an
economy.
47. Central government’s fiscal deficit at May-end
2023 narrowed to 11.8% of the annual budget
estimates, showcasing a positive trend compared
to the previous year. In context to the same tell
us, which of the following agencies isresponsible for formulating the Fiscal Policy in
India?
(A) Securities and Exchange Board of India
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) Ministry of Finance, Government of India
(D) National Bank for Agricultural and Rural
Development
Ans: (C)
Exp: Fiscal policy is formulated by the Ministry of
Finance.
Fiscal policy has been defined as ‘the policy of
the government with regard to the level of
government purchases, the level of transfers, and
the tax structure’.
Fiscal policy is also defined as the policy which
handles public expenditure and tax to direct and
stimulate the level of economic activity.
India’s fiscal policy always tries to reduce its
deficit by enhancing tax revenue and controlling
expenditure.
48.ISRO’s preparations for the launch of
Chandrayaan-3 are in the final stages, with the
rocket assembly complete and the final tests
pending. In context to the same tell us, Indian
Space Research Organisation (ISRO) launched
India’s first lunar probe Chandrayaan-1 in which
year?
(A) March 2008
(B) October 2008
(C) August 2009
(D) October 2009
Ans: (B)
Exp: Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
launched India’s first lunar probe Chandrayaan-
1 in October 2008 and operated until August2009. It included a lunar orbiter and an impactor.
49. Government has extended the tenure of
Brajendra Navnit as Ambassador of India to the
World Trade Organisation for nine months till 31
March next year. In context to WTO tell us, at
Palais des Nations in Geneva, how many
countries signed GATT on 30 October 1947?
(A) 24
(B) 25
(C) 23
(D) 27
Ans: (C)
Exp: On 30 October 1947, the General Agreement on
Tariffs and Trade (GATT) was signed by 23
nations at the Palais des Nations in Geneva.
The Agreement contained tariff concessions
agreed to during the first multilateral trade
negotiations and a set of rules designed toprevent these concessions from being frustrated
by restrictive trade measures.
The 23 founding contracting parties were
members of the Preparatory Committee
established by the United Nations Economic and
Social Council in 1946 to draft the charter of the
International Trade Organization (ITO).
50. Nationalist Congress Party (NCP) leader Ajit
Pawar, who took oath as the Deputy chief
minister of Maharashtra after joining the Eknath
Shinde-led government. In context to the same
tell us, which article of the Indian Constitution
deals with the appointment of the states’ council
of ministers?
(A) Article 164
(B) Article 151
(C) Article 178
(D) Article 163
Ans: (A)
Exp: Article 164 of the Indian Constitution deals with
the appointment of the states’ council of
ministers. While it specifies the appointment of
the Chief Minister by the Governor, it does not
explicitly mention the Deputy Chief Minister’s
post. However, the Deputy CM is generally
considered equivalent to the rank of a cabinet
minister and enjoys similar privileges and perks.
51. An agreement has been made with the Universal
Postal Union (UPU) to establish a regional office
in New Delhi, which will provide development
cooperation and technical assistance to the
region. In context to the same tell us, The
Universal Postal Union was founded under
which treaty?
(A) Treaty of Verdun
(B) Treaty of Bonn
(C) Treaty of Bern
(D) Treaty of Alton
Ans: (C)
Exp: The Universal Postal Union (UPU), founded
under the Treaty of Bern in 1874, has its
headquarters in the Swiss city of Bern. It
operates as a United Nations (UN) specialized
agency and is responsible for regulating postal
policies and services among member nations
worldwide. The UPU is composed of the
Congress, Council of Administration (CA),
Postal Operations Council (POC), and
International Bureau (IB), and manages the
Telematics and Express Mail Service (EMS)
cooperatives. All members must comply with the
same set of terms and conditions for conducting
international postal duties.
52. The 1971 Liberation War Gallery has
inaugurated at the Indian Cultural Centre of the
High Commission of India in Dhaka. In context
to the same tell us, Which of the following
statement is not true about Tashkent Agreement
signed between India and Pakistan?
(A) Tashkent Agreement signed on 11 January
1966
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru was the Prime Minister of
India at that time
(C) Its Happened in Russia
(D) They agreed to did not to use military power
Ans: (B)
Exp: The Tashkent Agreement was a peace treaty
signed by India and Pakistan in 1965 to end the
Indo-Pakistani War.
Lal Bahadur Shastri is the prime minister who
signed on Tashkent agreement.
On January 10, 1966, Lal Bahadur Shastri and
Pakistan’s then-President Muhammad Ayub
Khan signed the Tashkent Agreement.
Tashkent is the capital city of Uzbekistan.
Aleksey Kosygin, the Soviet premier, mediated
the agreement.
The parties agreed that all armed forces would
be withdrawn to positions held prior to August
5, 1965.
In India, the agreement was criticized because it
did not include a no-war pact or any commitment
to refrain from guerilla warfare in Kashmir.
Lal Bahadur Shastri died in Tashkent on the
same day after the Tashkent Declaration (10th
January 1966).
53. Microsoft has signed a memorandum of
understanding (MoU) with Directorate General
of Training (DGT) under the Ministry of Skills
Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE). In
context to cyber-security tell us, identify the
oldest phone hacking technique used by hackers
to make free calls –
(A) Spamming (B) Cracking
(C) Phising (D) Phreaking
Ans: (B)
Exp: Phreaking is the oldest phone hacking technique
used by hackers to make free calls. A phreak is
someone who breaks into the telephone network
illegally, typically to make free long-distance
phone calls or to tap phone lines. The term is
now sometimes used to include anyone whobreaks or tries to break the security of any
network.
54. Shalini Singh made history as she completed the
mountaineering course in the Himalayan area of
Uttarakhand as the country’s first female NCC
cadet. In context to NCC tell us, which one of the
following is the motto of NCC?
(A) Unity and Discipline
(B) Unity and Integrity
(C) Unity and command
(D) Unity and service
Ans: (A)
Exp: National Cadet Corps
The NCC was formed in 1948 (on the
recommendation of H. N. Kunzru Committee-
1946) and has its roots in British-era uniformed
youth entities like University Corps or
University Officer Training Corps.
The need for having a motto for the Corps was
discussed in the 11th Central Advisory
Committee (CAC) meeting held on 11 Aug
1978. The mottos suggested were “Duty and
Discipline”; “Duty, Unity and Discipline”;
“Duty and Unity”; “Unity and Discipline”.
The final decision for the selection of “Unity and
Discipline” as the motto for the NCC was taken
in the 12th CAC meeting held on 12 Oct 1980.
55. North Korea’s first attempt of launching a
military spy satellite has ended in failure. In
context to spy satellite tell us, what is the name
of India’s first spy satellite?
(A) EOS ‑ 04 (B) RISAT – 2
(C) Cartosat – 2B (D) TecSAR – 1
Ans: (B)
Exp: RISAT-2, or Radar Imaging Satellite-2 was an
Indian radar imaging reconnaissance satellite
that was part of India’s RISAT programme. It
was built by Indian Space Research Organisation
(ISRO) and successfully launched from Satish
Dhawan Space Centre. RISAT-2 was India’s first
satellite with a synthetic-aperture radar (SAR). It
was India’s first spy satellite.
56. Recently, the Tamil Nadu (TN) Government has
stated that the Article 25 (Freedom of Religion)
of the Indian Constitution guarantees every
citizen the right to propagate his religion, while
replying to a petition in the Supreme Court (SC).
In context to the same tell us, whichconstitutional amendment added the word
“secular” to the preamble of the Constitution?
(A) 42nd
(B) 46th
(C) 40th
(D) 51st
Ans: (A)
Exp: The 42nd Constitutional amendment in 1976
added the word “secular” to the preamble of the
Constitution. India being a secular state, is a no
state religion which means that it follows no
particular religion. In Ahmedabad St Xavier’s
College v. State of Gujarat (1975), the SC held
that Secularism neither means anti-god nor progod.
It just ensures that no one is differentiated
on the basis of religion eliminating the concept
of God in matters of the state.
57. As the Karnataka Assembly Elections draw
closer, political parties are trading accusations of
hate speech against each other. In context to the
same tell us, which article of the constitution
provides the power of superintendence, direction
and control of elections to parliament?
(A) Article 324 (B) Article 325
(C) Article 326 (D) Article 327
Ans: (A)
Article 324 of the Constitution provides that the
power of superintendence, direction and control
of elections to parliament, state legislatures, the
office of president of India and the office of vicepresident
of India shall be vested in the Election
Commission.
58. Recently, the Ministry of Health and Family
Welfare has released the 7th National Health
Accounts (NHA) Estimates for India (2019-20),
which was produced by the National Health
Systems Resource Centre. In context to the same
tell us, which finance commission recommends
that the public health expenditure of the Union
and States should be increased together to reach
2.5% of GDP (Growth Domestic Product) by
2025?
(A) Thirteenth Finance Commission
(B) Fourteenth Finance Commission
(C) Fifteenth Finance Commission
(D) Sixteenth Finance Commission
Ans: (C)
Exp: The state governments
should move ahead in healthcare spending as
percentage of their total budget to about 8%
which is currently 4-5% for many states, addingthat “this spending must be in line with the
bigger picture of benefiting the citizens”. It is
important to persist with this trend of
expenditure on primary healthcare so that
promotive and preventive health, which mostly
take place at primary level, can be focused upon.
The Fifteenth Finance Commission recommends
that the public health expenditure of the Union
and States should be increased together to reach
2.5% of GDP (Growth Domestic Product) by
2025. Currently, 20% of the population has
social and private health insurance, while the
remaining 30%, known as the “missing middle,”
have no health insurance.
59. Recently, the World Meteorological
Organization (WMO) released its State of the
Global Climate 2022 report which pointed out
that the Paris Agreement on Climate Change has
been ineffective in fulfilling its agenda. In
context to the same tell us, The Paris Agreement
that serves as the centre point of ongoing global
negotiation on climate change was inked in
which year?
(A) 2018
(B) 2015
(C) 2014
(D) 2013
Ans: (B)
Exp: Paris Agreement on
Climate Change is a legally binding global
agreement under the United Nations Framework
Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) that
was adopted in 2015. It was adopted in
UNFCCC COP21. It aims to combat climate
change and limit global warming to well below
2°C above pre-industrial levels, with an
ambition to limit warming to 1.5°C. It replaced
the Kyoto Protocol which was an earlier
agreement to deal with climate change.
60. India’s first undersea twin tunnels are set to open
in Mumbai, after more than two years of work
on the Mumbai Coastal Road Project by the
Brihanmumbai Municipal Corporation. In
context to the same tell us, which of the
following is India’s longest highway tunnel?
(A) Jawahar Tunnel
(B) Atul tunnel
(C) Rohtang Tunnel
(D) Dr Syama Road Tunnel
Ans: (D) Exp: Dr Syama Road Tunnel in Jammu is the longest
highway tunnel in India. This tunnel was earlier
known as Chenani Nashri Tunnel.
It is the nine km long tunnel that connects
Udhampur to Ramban in Jammu. It cuts down 31
km of travel distance and reduces the travel time
between the two points by about two hours, in
addition to substantial savings in fuel cost. Atal
Tunnel is the world’s longest highway tunnel
above 10,000(3,048 m) feet. Atal Tunnel is also
known as Rohtang tunnel. The tunnel was
inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi
on 3rd October 2020.
61. 350th year of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj’s
Coronation Day has commemorated in country
in June 2023. In context to Chhatrapati Shivaji
Maharaj tell us, What was the designation of the
officer in charge of personal safety of the king
during Shivaji’s regime?
(A) Majumdar
(B) Peshwa
(C) Senapati
(D) Waqianavis
Ans: (D)
Exp: Shivaji had a System of Administration in which
the King was Assisted by 8 ministers.
This System is called as Ashtapradhan.
Peshwa – Chief/Prime Minister (General
Administration)
Senapati – Military Commander.
Surunavis – Responsible for Royal
Correspondence.
Waqianavis – Responsible for the Personal safety
of the King.
Sumant or Dabir – Foreign Affairs/Royal
Ceremonies.
Nyayadhish – Justice Adimistration.
Punditrao – Charity and Religious Affairs.
62. President Droupadi Murmu became the first
Indian to be honoured with the Grand Order of
the Chain of the Yellow Star, the highest civilian
award in Suriname. In context to award and
honors tell us, “Sur Samman Award” is given to
the outstanding talent in which field?
(A) Singing
(B) Literature
(C) Agriculture
(D) Music
Ans: (B)
Exp: ‘Sur Samman Award’ is given to the outstanding
talent in the field of Literature.
It is the highest Hindi literature award in
Harayana. The Haryana government confer the Sur
Samman award to an eminent litterateur for
outstanding contribution to the promotion of
Hindi literature.
Sur Samman This award is named after the great
poet `Surdas’.
63. Ms. Nirmala Lakshman has been appointed
Chairperson of the Board of Directors of The
Hindu Group Publishing Private Limited
(THGPPL) for a term of three years. In context
to the same tell us, The Hindu Group was
founded in 1878 by whom?
(A) G Subramania Iyer
(B) Ramnath Goenka
(C) M Veeraraghavachariar
(D) P Anandacharlu
Ans: (A)
Exp: The Hindu Group Publishing Private Limited
(THGPPL) is a media company headquartered in
Chennai, India. It is the publisher of The Hindu,
a national daily newspaper, as well as other
publications including Frontline, Sportstar, and
Hindu BusinessLine. THGPPL also operates a
number of digital properties, including The
Hindu’s website and mobile app.
The company was founded in 1878 by G.
Subramania Iyer. It was originally known as The
Hindu Religious and Public Trust, and its
primary focus was on publishing religious and
educational material. In 1905, the trust acquired
The Hindu newspaper, and the company’s focus
shifted to journalism.
THGPPL has been praised for its high-quality
journalism and its commitment to independent
reporting. The company has won numerous
awards, including the Ramnath Goenka Award
for Excellence in Journalism and the Press Club
of India Award for Best Newspaper.
64. AC Milan striker Zlatan Ibrahimovic announces
his retirement from football after they played
season’s final game against Hellas Verona. In
context to Football tell us, which is the highest
governing body of association football?
(A) International Council of Association
Football
(B) International Committee of Association
Football
(C) International Federation of Association
Football(D) International Organization of Association
Football
Ans: (C)
Exp: The International Federation of Association
Football is a non-profit organization which is the
governing body of association football, futsal,
beach soccer, and football. It is the highest
governing body of football. FIFA was founded
in 1904 to oversee international competition
among the national association of Belgium,
Denmark, France, Germany, the Netherland,
Spain, Sweden, and Switzerland.
65. Denmark, France, Germany, the Netherland,
Spain, Sweden, and Switzerland.
65. The Indian government has established a
commission of inquiry, led by former Chief
Justice of the Gauhati High Court, Ajai Lamba,
to investigate the recent series of violent
incidents in Manipur. In context to violence and
crime tell us, POCSO Act of 2012 was enacted
to deal with which of the following Offences?
(A) Election Disputes
(B) Child Sexual Abuse
(C) Land Disputes
(D) Economic Offences
Ans: (B)
Exp: The Protection of Children from Sexual
Offences Act, 2012, (POCSO Act) and its
corresponding rules were enacted with the
objective of protecting children from a slew of
sexual offences and introducing child-friendly
judicial mechanisms for dealing with such
offences.
Child sexual abuse laws in India have been
enacted as part of the child protection policies of
India.
The Parliament of India passed the ‘Protection of
Children Against Sexual Offences Bill
(POCSO), 2011′ regarding child sexual abuse on
22 May 2012 into an Act.
The rules formulated by the government in
accordance with the law have also been notified
in November 2012 and the law has become ready
for implementation.
There have been many calls for more stringent laws.
66. Hydrogen is a crucial part of the world’s plans to
greenify its manufacturing and automobile
industries as a fuel whose production and use
needn’t emit carbon. In the ‘Index of Eight Core
Industries’, which one of the following is given
the highest weight?
(A) Coal production(B) Electricity generation
(C) Fertilizer production
(D) Steel production
Ans: (B)
Exp: The monthly Index of Eight Core Industries
(ICI) is a production volume index. ICI measures
collective and individual performance of
production in selected eight core industries viz.
Coal, Crude Oil, Natural Gas, Refinery Products,
Fertilizers, Steel, Cement and Electricity.
It is compiled and released by Office of the
Economic Adviser (OEA), Department of
Industrial Policy & Promotion (DIPP), and
Ministry of Commerce & Industry.
The eight core industries in decreasing order of
their weightage: Refinery Products> Electricity>
Steel> Coal> Crude Oil> Natural Gas> Cement>
Fertilizers.
Base Year for IIP calculation is 2011-2012.
Previously, Electricity was having the highest
weightage. Currently, Refinery Products has the
highest weightage.
67. Hydrogen can also be used as a reducing agent
instead of carbon monoxide (CO), which would
result in much lower greenhouse gas emissions.
In context to the same tell us, the steel
production industry in India requires the import
of which element?
(A) Saltpetre
(B) Rock phosphate
(C) Coking coal
(D) All of the above
Ans: (C)
Exp: Saltpetre (Potassium nitrate) is not used in the
production of Steel.
It is used in the production of fertilizers, tree
stump removal, rocket propellants and
fireworks.
It is one of the major constituents of gunpowder
(black powder) and has been used since the
Middle Ages as a food preservative.
Rock phosphate is used in the production of
fertilizer and not for the production of Steel India imports coking coal. Hence Option 3 is Correct. The production of steel requires 0.8 tonnes of
coking coal to produce one tonne of Steel.
68. According to an article published in the journal
‘Science’, the African Swine Fever could fatally
affect the population of pygmy hogs, the world’s
rarest and smallest pigs. In context to the sametell us, which of the following is not naturally
found in India?
(A) Star tortoise
(B) Monitor lizard
(C) Pygmy hog
(D) Spider monkey
Ans: (D)
Exp: STAR TORTOISE: –
The scientific name of the Indian Star Tortoise is
Geochelone elegans and is a reptile.
It comes under the list of endangered species, the
main cause being the pet trade activity.
MONITOR LIZARD: –
The scientific name of Bengal Monitor or
Common Indian Monitor is Varanus
bengalensis.
The reptile is found in Afghanistan, Bangladesh,
Burma, India, Iran, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri
Lanka.
PYGMY HOG: –
The scientific name of Pygmy Hog is Porcula
salvania and is a mammal.
It is listed as endangered on the IUCN Red List
and is also listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife
Protection Act, 1972.
SPIDER MONKEY: –
The primate belongs to the genus Ateles and is
found in the tropical forests of Central and South
America.
The genus Ateles includes seven species out of
which one is vulnerable, five are endangered and
one (brown spider monkey) is critically
endangered as per the IUCN Red List.
69. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has formed
an eight-member fact-finding committee to look
into the death of 11 people due to a recent gas
leak in Ludhiana district of Punjab. In context to
the same tell us, what is the chemical formula of
the gas leaked in Bhopal Gas tragedy?
(A) COCl₂
(B) C₂H₃NO
(C) C₂H₄O
(D) NH₄NO₃
Ans: (B)
Exp: Post-midnight on December 3, 1984, Methyl
Isocyanate (MIC) (Chemical formula- CH3NCO
or C2H3NO) leaked from the pesticide plant of
Union Carbide (now Dow Chemicals), an MNC,
in Madhya Pradesh capital Bhopal.
It is estimated that about 40 tonnes of gas and
other chemicals leaked from the Union Carbide
factory.
Methyl isocyanate is extremely toxic gas and if
its concentration in the air touches 21ppm (partsper million), it can cause death within minutes of
inhaling the gas.
70. In recent years, there has been renewed interest
in the use of Psychedelics in the clinical and
research domain of Psychiatry. In context to the
same tell us, Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic
Substances Act was passed in which year?
(A) 1985
(B) 1971
(C) 1995
(D) 1965
Ans: (A)
Exp: Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances
Act was enacted in 1985 and deals with drugs
and their trafficking in the country. The act has
since been amended thrice in 1988, 2001, and
2014. The Act prohibits the production,
manufacture, sale, purchase, transportation &
consumption of many narcotic drugs or
psychotropic substances, including cannabis,
heroin, opium etc. The law, However Bhang is
not prohibited under the Act. Section 20 of the
NDPS Act lays out the punishment for the
production, manufacture, sale, purchase, import
and inter-state export of cannabis, as defined in
the Act. The prescribed punishment is based on
the number of drugs seized. It also provides for
the death penalty in some cases where a person
is a repeat offender.
71. The Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Madras
has retained the top spot in the National Institute
Ranking Framework (NIRF), 2023. In context to
Indian Institutions tell us, Where is the Indian
School of Mines located?
(A) Dhanbad
(B) Bokaro
(C) Ranchi
(D) Deoghar
Ans: (A)
Exp: Indian Institute of Technology (Indian School of
Mines) was established in 1926.
It is a public technical and research university
located in Dhanbad, India.
It has a main campus of 218 acres in the Sardar
Patel Nagar area of Dhanbad.
It was formerly known as the Indian School of
Mines before its conversion into an IIT.
72. Veteran actress Sulochana Latkar has passed
away at the age of 94. In which year she was
awarded with the Padma Shri Award?
(A) 1999
(B) 2000
(C) 1998
(D) 2001Ans: (A)
Exp: Sulochana Latkar was awarded the Padma Shri
Award in 1999 and the prestigious Maharashtra
Bhushan Award in 2009 from the Government
of Maharashtra. She was the recipient of the
Filmfare Lifetime Achievement Award at the
Filmfare Awards Marathi last year for her
outstanding contribution to Marathi cinema. She
was also a recipient Chitrabhushan award.
73. The Mekedatu project has gained attention in
recent news due to Karnataka’s Deputy Chief
Minister, D K Shivakumar, advocating for its
implementation. In context to the same tell us,
Mekedatu project has been built on which river?
(A) Krishna
(B) Cauvery
(C) Tungabhadra
(D) Godavari
Ans: (B)
Exp: Mekedatu, meaning goat’s leap, is a deep gorge
situated at the confluence of the rivers Cauvery
and its tributary Arkavathi.
The Rs 9,000 crore project aims to store and
supply water for drinking purposes for the
Bengaluru city. Around 400 megawatts (MW) of
power is also proposed to be generated through
the project.
It was first approved by the Karnataka state
government in 2017.
It received approval from the erstwhile Ministry
of Water Resources for the detailed project
report and is awaiting approval from the
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate
Change (MoEFCC).
74. Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s launch of the
Amrit Dharohar and MISHTI schemes on World
Environment Day reflects India’s commitment to
conserving wetlands and mangroves. In context
to the same tell us, which of the following trees
are mangrove in nature?
(A) Banyan, Jarul, Sal
(B) Sal, Teak, Oak
(C) Byne, Garan, Ganwea
(D) Mango, Papaya, Sal
Ans: (C)
Exp: Mangrove plants are those that grow in marshy
swamp habitats.
They are halophytes i.e live in salt water.
Their roots are modified as pneumatophores to
take oxygen from the air.
These roots arise above ground level. More than a hundred trees grow in the mangrove
ecosystem.
Some examples of mangroves are:
Sundari (Heritiera fomes),
Garan,
Excoecaria agallocha,
Sonneratia apetala
Byne
Ganwea
75. KK Gopalakrishnan has recently released a
captivating book titled “Kathakali Dance
Theatre: A Visual Narrative of Sacred Indian
Mime.” In context to folk dances tell us, Leela
Samson is associated to which classical dance
style?
(A) Bharatanatyam
(B) Kathakali
(C) Kuchipudi
(D) Odissi
Ans: (A)
Exp: Leela Samson is a Bharatanatyam dancer,
choreographer, instructor, and writer from India.
As a soloist, she is known for her technical
virtuosity and has taught Bharatanatyam at
Shriram Bhartiya Kala Kendra in Delhi for many
years
Bharatanatyam, also previously called Sadhir
Attam, is a major form of Indian classical dance
that originated in Tamil Nadu.
It has flourished in the temples and courts of
southern India since ancient times.
76. The finance minister of India has urged the
World Trade Organisation (WTO) to look at the
issue of farm subsidies with an open mind as it
impacts the food security needs of emerging
economies in the backdrop of COVID-19
pandemic and the Russia-Ukraine war. In
context to the same tell us, India enacted the
Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration
and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply
with the obligations to which organisation?
(A) ILO
(B) IMF
(C) UNCTAD
(D) WTO
Ans: (D)
Exp: Geographical Indications (GI) are one of the
eight intellectual property items coming under
WTO’s TRIPs (Trade-Related Intellectual
Property Rights). According to the WTO,
“Geographical indications are indications which
identify a good as originating in the territory of
a Member or a region or locality in that territory, where a given quality, reputation or other
characteristics of the good is essentially
attributable to its geographical origin”. India
enacted the Geographical Indication of Goods
(Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 which
came into force with effect from September 15,
2003, to comply with India’s obligations under
the TRIPS agreement. The Controller General of
Patents, Designs & Trade Marks (CGPDT),
(under the Dept of Industrial Policy and
Promotion of Ministry of Commerce and
Industry) is the ‘Registrar of Geographical
indications’. The CGPDT directs and supervises
the functioning of the Geographical Indications
Registry (GIR).
77. The terms “Agreement on Agriculture”,
“Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and
Phytosanitary Measures” and “Peace Clause”
appear in the news frequently in the context of
the affairs of the –
(A) Food and Agriculture Organization
(B) United Nations Framework Conference on
Climate Change
(C) World Trade Organization
(D) United Nations Environment Programme
Ans: (C)
Exp: The terms ‘Agreement on Agriculture’,
‘Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and
Phytosanitary Measures’ and ‘Peace Clause’
appear in the news frequently in the context of
the affairs of the World Trade Organisation.
WTO is the only global international
organization dealing with the rules of trade
between nations.
It was created by Uruguay Round negotiations
(1986-94) with a membership of 164 members
representing 98 percent of world trade.
It was established on 1 January 1995 with its
headquarters in Geneva, Switzerland.
Agreement on Agriculture came into force on 1
January 1995.
The preamble to the Agreement recognizes that
the agreed long-term objective of the reform
process initiated by the Uruguay Round to
establish a fair and market-oriented agricultural
trading system.
78. The FM has given speech at the Asian
Development Bank Governor’s seminar on
“Policies to support Asia’s rebound”. In thecontext of which of the following the terms
“amber box, blue box and green box” is
associated with –
(A) WTO affairs
(B) SAARC affairs
(C) UNFCCC affairs
(D) India-EU affairs
Ans: (A)
Exp: In WTO terminology, domestic subsidies in
agriculture are identified by “Boxes” namely
Green Box, Amber Box & Blue Box.
Amber Box:
All domestic support measures that distort
production and trade (with some exceptions) fall
into the amber box.
Blue Box:
It refers to a category of domestic support or
subsidies under the WTO’s Agreement on
Agriculture.
This is the “amber box with conditions” –
conditions designed to reduce distortion.
Any support that would normally be in the amber
box, is placed in the blue box if the support also
requires farmers to limit production.
Green Box:
Subsidies that do not distort trade or at most
cause minimal distortion are placed in Green
Box.
These subsidies have to be government-funded
(not by charging consumers higher prices) and
must not involve price support.
79. In a recent ruling, the Supreme Court (SC) has
declined to direct the government to commute
the death penalty of Balwant Singh Rajoana,
instead, it has allowed the government to decide
on the Mercy Petition when necessary. In con
text to the same tell us, under which article, the
President have the power to grant pardons,
reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment
etc of any offense?
(A) Article 66
(B) Article 72
(C) Article 79
(D) Article 78
Ans: (B)
Exp: Article 72 –
The President shall have the power to grant
pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of
punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the
sentence of any person convicted of any offense:
In all cases where the punishment or sentence is
by a Court Martial;
In all cases where the punishment or sentence is
for an offence against any law relating to amatter to which the executive power of the
Union extends;
In all cases where the sentence is a sentence of
death.
80. The European Parliament has reached a
preliminary agreement on a new draft of the
Artificial Intelligence Act, which aims to
regulate systems like OpenAI’s ChatGPT. In
context to the same tell us, Who is known as the
father of modern AI?
(A) Raj Reddy (B) Peter Naur
(C) Alan Perlis (D) John McCarthy
Ans: (D)
Exp: Father of Artificial Intelligence is John
McCarthy. John McCarthy is one of the
“founding fathers” of artificial intelligence,
together with Alan Turing, Marvin Minsky,
Allen Newell, and Herbert A Simon.
81. Cryptocurrencies experienced a widespread
decline following the accusations made by the
US Securities and Exchange Commission
against Binance Holdings Ltd. In context to
cryptocurrency tell us, which of the following is
one of the types of the blockchain network?
(A) Open blockchain network
(B) Constraint blockchain network
(C) Private blockchain network
(D) Restricted blockchain network
Ans: (C)
Exp: Blockchain is a distributed, unchangeable ledger
that makes recording transactions and managing
assets in a corporate network much easier.
There are four main types of blockchain
networks –
Public blockchain network
Private blockchain network
Consortium blockchain network
Hybrid blockchain network
82.The Bank of Baroda, a government-owned bank,
has announced its intention to sell a portion of its
ownership in the National Stock Exchange of
India (NSE). In context to banks tell us, How
many banks were nationalized in India on 15th
April 1980?
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 8
Ans: (C) Exp: Six Indian banks were nationalized on 15th April
1980.
Nationalization is the transfer of ownership and
management of an undertaking from private
hands to the states.
Banks were nationalized in India through an
ordinance passed in the year 1969.
Indira Gandhi was the prime minister who
nationalized banks in India.
The first nationalization of banks took place on
19th July 1969.
14 banks were nationalized in 1969.
It was based on the banks whose deposit exceeds
Rs. 50 crores.
The second time government nationalized banks
on 15th April 1980.
6 banks were nationalized in 1980.
It was based on the banks whose deposit exceeds
Rs. 200 crores.
83. Union Minister of Ports, Shipping and
Waterways, Sarbananda Sonowal has flagged
off the maiden International Cruise Vessel “MV
Empress”, India’s first international cruise
vessel. In context to the same tell us, what is the
name of the first cruise ship manufactured in
India?
(A) Ganga Vilas (B) Jalesh Cruise
(C) Mahabaahu (D) Luxury Vrinda
Ans: (A)
Exp: The MV Ganga Vilas is a river cruise ship
manufactured in India. It was flagged off in
January 2023 by the Prime Minister. Ganga
Vilas is also the longest Motor Vessel of its kind
in the world. It is also significant as the first
cruise ship to be manufactured in India. It is on
course to creating a world record for sailing the
longest along several river systems, entered
Assam from Bangladesh, 39 days after leaving
Varanasi.
84.The Pinarayi Vijayan-led Kerala government
has officially launched the Kerala Fibre Optical
Network (KFON). In context to the same tell us,
Optic fibres are used in which field?
(A) CAT scans
(B) X-ray photos
(C) Ultrasound scans
(D) Endoscopy
Ans: (D)
Exp: Endoscopes use optical fibres to produce an
image of inside the body. A doctor can insert a bundle of optical fibres into
the body.
Some carry light into the body, and some carry
light reflected off internal body surfaces back
out.
This allows the doctor to see an image of the
inside of the body clearly, and help them
diagnose diseases like cancer, or see what they
are doing during keyhole surgery.
85. The World Bank’s latest Global Economic
Prospects report indicates an upward revision in
global GDP growth for 2023, while lowering
India’s growth forecast for FY24. In context to
economy tell us, Which of the following is NOT
one of the determinants of demand?
(A) Future expectation to change in price
(B) Income of consumer
(C) Taste and preference of seller
(D) Price of goods
Ans: (C)
Exp: The taste preference of the seller is not a
determinant of demand because it depends upon
the taste preference of buyers or individuals.
Taste and Preferences of consumers are
influenced by advertisements, changes in
fashion, climate, new innovations etc.
Demand for those goods increases and
consumers develop a strong taste preference.
If the taste or preference of a product is fading
(decreasing), its demand will decrease.
The demand function is D×= f(Px,Pr,Y,T,E)
Px = Price of own community
Pr = Price of related goods
Y = Income
T = Taste in Preference of buyers
E = Expectations.
86. Recently, the All-Tribal Students’ Union of
Manipur (ATSUM) has carried out a solidarity
march in order to oppose the demand of Meitei
Community be included in the List of State’s
Scheduled Tribes (ST). In context to the same
tell us, The provisions in Fifth Schedule and
Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are
made in order to –
(A) Protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
(B) Determine the boundaries between States
(C) Determine the powers, authority and
responsibilities of Panchayats
(D) Protect the interests of all the border StatesAUGUST 2023 Current Affairs by Ramanshu GS Classes
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115
Ans: (A)
Exp: The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with
the administration and control of scheduled areas
and scheduled tribes in any state except the four
states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and
Mizoram.
The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, on the
other hand, deals with the administration of the
tribal areas in the four northeastern states of
Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
It protects the interest of Schedule tribes.
It does not relate to the boundaries of states.
It excludes the fifth and sixth schedule areas
from the application of the Panchayati Raj
system.
This is to ensure that the local tribal practices,
customs, religious laws, social and political
institutions are not tampered with.
It does not protect the interests of the border
States.
87. Recently, India’s Council of Scientific and
Industrial Research (CSIR) and Israel’s Defense
Research and Development (DDR&D) have
signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU)
on Industrial Research and Development
Cooperation. In context to the same tell us, The
term “two-state solution” is in the context of the
affairs of which country?
(A) China
(B) Israel
(C) Iraq
(D) Yemen
Ans: (B)
Exp: “Two-State Solution” is related to Israel-
Palestine conflict. It aims at the resolution of this
conflict via creation of two independent states –
Israel and Palestine. It gained traction post Oslo
Accord 1993, and is seen by many as the only
viable solution to this impending crisis.
The framework of the solution is set out in the
UN resolution on the “Peaceful Settlement of the
Question of Palestine”, going back to 1974.
88. The government of India rejected the
recommendations of the US Commission on
International Religious Freedom’s (USCIRF)
2023 report, calling it biased and motivated. In
context to the same tell us, USCIRF is
headquartered in which city?
(A) Washington DC
(B) Paris
(C) New York
(D) London
Ans: (A) Exp: USCIRF is an independent, bipartisan US
federal government commission, dedicated to
defending the universal right to freedom of
religion or belief abroad.
It is an advisory body to the US Congress.
It is Headquartered in Washington DC.
Established by the US government after the
inaction of the International Religious Freedom
Act (IRFA), 1998 the recommendations of
USCIRF are non-binding on the state
department. IRFA provides that US policy
includes condemning violations of religious
freedom and assisting other governments in the
promotion of this right.
Traditionally, India does not recognize the view
of USCIRF.
89. The National Payments Corporation of India
(NPCI) has allowed NRIs of 10 countries to use
UPI using their international mobile numbers of
their bank accounts, which are classified as Non-
Resident External (NRE) or Non-Resident
Ordinary (NRO) accounts. Non Resident Indians
(NRI) Day is marked on:
(A) January 9
(B) January 17
(C) January 19
(D) January 7
Ans: (A)
Exp: Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (English: Non-Resident
Indian Day), is celebrated in India on 9 January
every other year (every year before 2016) to
mark the contribution of the overseas Indian
community to the development of India. The day
commemorates the return of Mahatma Gandhi
from South Africa in Bombay on 9 January 1915
90.A group of Ramon Magsaysay Award
Foundation (RMAF) members from the
Philippines received an audience with His
Holiness the Dalai Lama on the 64th anniversary
of the conferment of the Award to His Holiness
in the year 1959. In context to the same tell us,
who was the first Ramon Magsaysay Award
winner from India?
(A) C. D. Deshmukh
(B) Jayaprakash Narayan
(C) Dr Verghese Kurien
(D) Acharya Vinoba Bhave
Ans: (D)
Exp: The Ramon Magsaysay Award is an annual
award established to perpetuate former
Philippine President Ramon Magsaysay’sexample of integrity in governance, courageous
service to the people, and pragmatic idealism
within a democratic society. Vinayak Narahari
“Vinoba” Bhave was an Indian advocate of
nonviolence and human rights. Often called
Acharya (Sanskrit for teacher), he is best known
for the Bhoodan Movement.
91. An awareness campaign for entrepreneurs of
state government was organised by the North
Eastern Development Finance Corporation Ltd
(NEDFi) at Shillong Club to educate and inform
them about the mentoring service through its
business facilitation centre. In context to the
same tell us, Shillong is a hill station in northeast
India and capital of which state?
(A) Manipur
(B) Tripura
(C) Assam
(D) Meghalaya
Ans: (D)
Exp: Shillong is a hill station in northeast India and
capital of the state of Meghalaya. It’s known for
the manicured gardens at Lady Hydari Park.
Nearby, Ward’s Lake is surrounded by walking
trails.
92.The water level in Mullaperiyar dam stood at
117.40 feet (permissible level is 142 ft) with an
inflow of 308 cusecs and a discharge of 100
cusecs. In context to the same tell us, The Tehri
Dam is the highest dam in India and tenth tallest
dam in the world located at?
(A) Uttarakhand
(B) Kerala
(C) Karnataka
(D) Telangana
Ans: (A)
Exp: The Tehri Dam is the Highest dam in India and
one of the highest in the world. It is a multipurpose
rock and earth-fill embankment dam on
the Bhagirathi River near Tehri in Uttarakhand,
India.
93. Hong Kong stocks fall 2% as investors digest
China’s trade data. In context to China tell us,
China, a communist nation in East Asia, is the
world’s most populous country. What is the
currency of China?
(A) Yen
(B) Taka
(C) Renminbi
(D) Dollar
Ans: (C)
Exp: China’s capital Beijing mixes modern
architecture with historic sites such as the
Forbidden City palace complex and Tiananmen
Square. The iconic Great Wall of China runseast-west across the country’s north. The
currency of China is Renminbi.
94. Small Industries Development Bank of India has
announced the launch of a pilot scheme for better
financing terms in electric vehicle space and
strengthening the whole ecosystem. In context to
the same tell us, Small Industries Development
Bank of India was established in which year?
(A) 1982
(B) 1949
(C) 1956
(D) 1990
Ans: (D)
Exp: Small Industries Development Bank of India is
an independent financial institution aimed to aid
the growth and development of micro, small and
medium-scale enterprises (MSME) in India. Set
up on April 2, 1990, through an act of
parliament, it was incorporated initially as a
wholly owned subsidiary of Industrial
Development Bank of India.
95. The 2023 men’s world championship will be cohosted
by Finland and Latvia. In context to the
same tell us, The National Sports Day of India is
dedicated to the legendary hockey player Dhyan
Chand on?
(A) 15th August
(B) 05th September
(C) 10th December
(D) 29th August
Ans: (D)
Exp: The National Sports Day in India is celebrated
on August 29 every year. This day marks the
birthday of Dhyan Chand, the hockey player
who won gold medals in Olympics for India in
the years 1928,1932 and 1936.
96. Janardan Prasad appointed new Director-
General of GSI: Janardan Prasad has been
appointed as the new Director General of the
Geological Survey of India (GSI). In context to
the same tell us, according to Geological Survey
of India which state has the highest graphite
deposits in India?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Punjab
Ans: (B)
Exp: According to the Geological Survey of India
(GSI), the state with the highest graphite
deposits is Arunachal Pradesh.
The Geological Survey of India(GSI), has
revealed that 35% of the country’s Graphite
deposits is in Arunachal Pradesh.
The GSI provided the data during its annual
interactive meeting with the Department of
Geology and Mining and Government of
Arunachal Pradesh in Itanagar.
Graphite is a crystalline form of carbon and it is
used in pencils and lubricants.
Its high conductivity makes it beneficial in
electronic products such as electrodes, batteries
and solar panels.
97. Germany is preparing to host the biggest air
deployment exercise in NATO’s history, a show
of force intended to impress allies and potential
adversaries such as Russia. In context to the
same tell us, when did NATO invoke Article 5
of North Atlantic Treaty for the first time?
(A) 1965
(B) 1972
(C) 2001
(D) 1984
Ans: (C)
Exp: NATO invoked Article 5 for the first time in its
history after the 9/11 terrorist attacks against the
United States. NATO has taken collective
defence measures on several occasions,
including in response to the situation in Syria
and the Russian invasion of Ukraine.
98. Udhayanidhi Stalin honored N Muthamizh
Selvi, who achieved significant feat by
becoming first woman from Tamil Nadu to
climb Mt Everest. In context to the same tell us,
what is the name of the fifth woman in the world
to reach the peak of Mount Everest?
(A) Bachhendri Pal
(B) Sunita Williams
(C) Karnam Malleshwari
(D) Santosh Yadav
Ans: (A)
Exp: Bachendri Pal was the fifth woman in the world
and the first Indian female to climb Mount
Everest
Bachendri Pal is an Indian mountaineer.
Bachendri Pal was born to a Bhotiya family on
24th May 1954 in Nakuri village, in the
Uttarkashi district in the North Indian state of
Uttarakhand.
In 1984, she became the first Indian woman to
reach the summit of Mount Everest.
She was awarded the third-highest civilian
award Padma Bhushan by the Government of India in 2019
99. Union Minister of Steel and Civil Aviation, Sh.
Jyotiraditya M. Scindia has stated that India has
moved from 4th largest producer of crude steel
to the second largest producer of crude steel. In
context to steel tell us, which one the following
is used to protect the steel from rusting?
(A) White lead (B) Molten lead
(C) Zinc (D) Red lead
Ans: (C)
Exp: When iron is dipped in zinc, the phenomenon is
called the galvanizing of iron
This process is generally done to prevent iron
from rusting.
Iron rusts very easily in the presence of moisture,
the reaction is given by 4Fe (Iron) + 3O2
(oxygen)→ 2Fe2O3 (iron oxide).
When iron rusts the structure can lose its strength
and break down easily, hence iron is dipped in
zinc to form a coating around it.
Iron will not rust now, as zinc is more reactive
than iron, and the oxygen will react with the zinc
and thus the iron will remain protected.
100. Gitanjali Aiyar, one of India’s first English
female news presenters on national broadcaster
Doordarshan, passed away. In context to the
same tell us, in which year she won the Indira
Gandhi Priyadarshini Award for Outstanding
Women?
(A) 1966
(B) 1989
(C) 1992
(D) 1981
Ans: (B)
Exp: After completing graduation from Kolkata’s
Loreto College, Gitanjali Aiyar had joined
Doordarshan in 1971 and was awarded the best
anchor four times. She also won the Indira
Gandhi Priyadarshini Award for Outstanding
Women in 1989. She was also a diploma holder
from the National School of Drama (NSD) Apart
from presenting news program.
101. As per RBI’s Half Yearly Report on
Management of Foreign Exchange Reserves:
October 2022 – March 2023, its gold reserves
touched 794.64 metric tonnes in FY 22-23, an
increase of nearly 5% over FY 21-22 (760.42
metric tonnes). In context to the same tell us,
Which one of the following groups of items is
included in India’s foreign-exchange reserves?
(A) Foreign-currency assets, Special Drawing
Rights (SDRs) and loans from foreign countries(B) Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the
RBI and SDRs
(C) Foreign-currency assets, loans from the
World Bank and SDRs
(D) Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the
RBI and loans from the World Bank
Ans: (B)
Exp: India’s foreign-exchange reserves include
Foreign-currency assets (FCA), Gold reserves,
Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) and reserve
position with the IMF.
Foreign-exchange reserves are those reserves
which a country’s central bank keeps, generally
in the form of US dollars.
Benefits/ Objectives:
It provides financial back up to a nation’s
currency at times of devaluation.
It attracts foreign investment.
Helps in meeting the country’s foreign
obligations and liabilities.
The supply of foreign currency by the central
bank makes the market steady.
Maintain the country’s good image in
international forums.
102. The National e-Governance Division (NeGD),
under its Capacity Building scheme, organised
36th CISO Deep-Dive training programme with
24 participants from Central Line Ministries and
States/UTs at Indian Institute of Public
Administration, New Delhi. In context to the
same tell us, The terms “WannaCry, Petya and
EternalBlue” sometimes mentioned in the news
recently are related to –
(A) Exoplanets
(B) Cryptocurrency
(C) Cyber-attacks
(D) Mini satellites
Ans: (C)
Exp: Ransomware is a form of malicious software (or
malware). Once it takes over the computer, it
threatens to harm the user, usually by denying
access to data. The attacker demands a ransom
from the victim, promising to restore access to
the data upon payment. WannaCry, Petya and
EternalBlue are few of the ransom ware, which
created havoc by demanding the victim ransom
payment in bit coin (crypto currency).
Cryptocurrency is a digital currency in which
encryption techniques are used to regulate the
generation of units of currency and verify the
transfer of funds, operating independently of a
central bank.
103. The National Dairy Development Board
(NDDB) will convene a meeting of Chairmen
and Managing Directors of cooperative dairy
federations in the country this month to sort out
the sensitive issue of cross-border marketing of
milk. In context to the same tell us, What
proteins are present in milk?
(A) Whey
(B) Casein
(C) Gluten
(D) Rennet
Ans: (B)
Exp: Casein and whey protein are the major proteins
of milk. Casein and whey protein are both
derived from milk. They differ in digestion times
— casein digests slowly, making it good before
bedtime, while whey digests quickly and is ideal
for workouts and muscle growth. Both contain
different bioactive compounds that may boost
your immune system and offer other benefits.
104. Weil’s disease is a severe form of Leptospirosis
which is a monsoon disease or bacterial infection
that causes the infected person to become
jaundiced. In context to the same tell us, In
Weil’s Disease, affected organ is –
(A) Skin
(B) Femur
(C) Kidney
(D) Ears
Ans: (C)
Exp: Weil’s disease is a severe form of leptospirosis.
This is a type of bacterial infection. It’s caused
by Leptospira bacteria. Leptospirosis typically
causes mild flu-like symptoms, such as headache
and chills. If the bacteria infect some specific
organs, there may be a more severe reaction.
These organs include:
liver
kidneys
lungs
heart
brain
105. Kurdish immigrant and human rights activist has
been honoured with Renate Shearer Award. In
context to the same tell us, Shearer Award for
which games?
(A) Football
(B) Cricket
(C) Tennis
(D) Hockey
Ans: (A)
Exp: Alan Shearer is an English football pundit and
retired football player and manager who played
as a striker. Widely regarded as one of the best
strikers of his generation and one of the greatestplayers in Premier League history, he is the
Premier League’s record goalscorer. He was
named Football Writers’ Association Player of
the Year in 1994 and won the PFA Player of the
Year award in 1995. In 1996, he came third in
both Ballon d’Or and FIFA World Player of the
Year awards. In 2004, he was named by Pelé in
the FIFA 100 list of the world’s greatest living
players. Shearer was one of the first two players
inducted into the Premier League Hall of Fame
in 2021.
106. Antonio Carbajal, the first Mexican player to
appear in five World Cups, has passed away at
the age of 93. In context to the same tell us, what
is the nicknamed of Antonio Carbajal?
(A) La Tota
(B) Super Mario
(C) Codino Oro
(D) Batigol
Ans: (A)
Exp: Antonio Carbajal, the first Mexican player to
appear in five World Cups, has passed away at
the age of 93. Carbajal, who was nicknamed “La
Tota,” played for Mexico between 1950 and
1966. Carbajal was born in Mexico City in 1929.
He started his professional career with Club
León in 1950 and went on to play for a number
of other Mexican clubs, including Club América
and Cruz Azul. He retired from professional
football in 1968. After retiring from football,
Carbajal worked as a coach and manager. He
also served as president of the Mexican Football
Federation from 1988 to 1994.
107. Parminder Chopra has been recommended by
the Public Enterprise Selection Board (PESB) to
become the next Chairman and Managing
Director (CMD) of Power Finance Corporation
(PFC). In context to the same tell us, Who is the
regulatory authority for Merchant Banking in
India?
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Securities and Exchange Board of India
(C) Union Ministry of Corporate Affairs
(D) Union Ministry of Finance
Ans: (B)
Exp: Stockbroking, Merchant banking NBFCs are
regulated by SEBI. RBI is the regulator of those
NBFC which deal in lending, accepting deposits,
financial leasing. Nidhi and Chitfund companies
are regulated by the Department of Company
Affairs. Housing Finance Companies areregulated by RBI. A Non-Banking Financial
Company (NBFC) is a company registered under
the Companies Act, 1956 or Companies Act,
2013. They are mainly engaged in the business
of loans and advances, acquisition of
shares/stocks/bonds/debentures/securities issued
by Government. NBFCs are not engaged in
agricultural activities or industrial activities.
NBFC cannot accept demand deposits
108. After more than a decade of being suspended
from the Arab League due to a government
crackdown on anti-Assad protesters that led to
war, Syria has been re-admitted to the
organization. In context to the same tell us,
Which is the official language of Syria?
(A) Hebrew
(B) Syriac
(C) Arabic
(D) Latin
Ans: (C)
Exp: Arabic is the official language, but Kurdish,
Armenian, Aramaic, Circassian, English and
French are also spoken. In the wake of World
War I and the disintegration of the Ottoman
Empire, the region that became modern-day
Syria was administered by the French. It gained
independence as a republic in 1946.
109. According to a recent statement by the State
government of Uttar Pradesh, the Urban
Development Department and Lucknow Smart
City have collaborated to launch a pilot project
called the “School Health Program”. In context
to the same tell us, Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan was
started in which five year plan?
(A) 9th
(B) 10th
(C) 11th
(D) 12th
Ans: (A)
Exp: Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan was launched in 2001
under the 86th constitutional amendment. It was
started under the 9th Five Year Plan (1997–
2002).
This period experienced a change in
government. The Ninth Plan was launched with
the objective of “growth with social justice and
equality”. It also gave priority to agricultural
development. The credit programs were
organized with emphasis on enhancing the
financial position of the government. It was
developed keeping in mind 4 important
dimensions of government policy:
improve quality of lifegeneration of productive employment
creation of regional balance
self reliance
The average pre-planned growth rate was 6.5%
but the achieved growth rate was 5.5%. Growth
in agriculture fell to 2.1% and manufacturing fell
to 4.51% from 4.69% and 7.57% from the
previous plans.
The Five Year Plans were a formal model of
planning for the effective and balanced use of
resources by the Government of India after
independence.
111. SpaceX Sends First Saudi Arabian Astronauts to
the International Space Station. In context to the
International Space Station tell us, it was
launched in which year?
(A) 1995
(B) 1998
(C) 1999
(D) 1991
Ans: (B)
Exp: The first ISS component was launched in 1998,
and the first long-term residents arrived on 2
November 2000 after being launched from the
Baikonur Cosmodrome on 31 October 2000. The
station has since been continuously occupied for
22 years and 204 days, the longest continuous
human presence in low Earth orbit, havingsurpassed the previous record of 9 years and 357
days held by the Mir space station. The latest
major pressurised module, Nauka, was fitted in
2021, a little over ten years after the previous major addition, Leonardo in 2011.
112. Denmark is considering a proposal to play an
active role in cleaning the Ganga, according to
the country’s Ambassador to India Freddy
Svane. In context to the Namami Gange tell us,
When was Namami Gange Project launched?
(A) 2011
(B) 2012
(C) 2013
(D) 2014
Ans: (D)
Exp: Namami Gange Project:
The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime
Minister, Shri Narendra Modi approved the
flagship.
The “Namami Gange” programme integrates the
efforts to clean and protect the Ganga river in a
comprehensive manner.
Namami Gange Programme is an Integrated
Conservation Mission, approved as a ‘Flagship
Programme’.
I was approved by the Union Government in
June 2014.
Its aim is to accomplish the twin objectives of
effective abatement of pollution and
conservation and rejuvenation of the National
River Ganga.
It is being operated under the Department of
Water Resources, River Development and
Ganga Rejuvenation, Ministry of Jal Shakti.
113. Supreme Court appointed Sapre Committee
submits report on Adani-Hindenburg issue. In
context to Supreme Court tell us, Which of the
following is one of the qualification to be a judge
of the Supreme Court under Article 124?
(A) Judge of High Court for at least 10 years in
succession
(B) Advocate of Supreme Court for at least 5
years in succession
(C) A distinguished jurist in the opinion of the
President.
(D) Advocate of High Court for 5 years in
succession
Ans: (C)
Exp: Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by
the President under Article 124(2) of the
ConstitutionA judge of the Supreme Court submits his
resignation to the President of India.
A person to be appointed as a judge of the
Supreme Court should have the following
qualifications under Article 124 (3):
Should be a citizen of India.
Should have been a judge of a High Court (or
High courts in succession) for at least five years.
Should have been an advocate of a High Court
(or High courts in succession) for at least ten
years.
Should be a distinguished jurist in the opinion of
the President.
The Constitution has not prescribed minimum
age for appointment as a judge of the Supreme
Court.
114. Sourav Ganguly named as brand ambassador of
Tripura Tourism. In context to the same tell us,
Bahadurgarh Nagar comes under which district
of Haryana?
(A) Jhajjar
(B) Karnal
(C) Yamunanagar
(D) Faridabad
Ans: (A)
Exp: Jhajjar district is one of the 22 districts of
Haryana state in northern India.
Carved out of Rohtak district on 15 July 1997
and with its headquarters in Jhajjar.
Bahadurgarh is the major city of the district and
state. Bahadurgarh is known as ‘The City of
Destiny’.
On 1 November 1966, Haryana was created on
the basis of parts of Punjab that were “Hindi
speaking areas” of Haryana.
The same example was followed in the creation
of Himachal Pradesh.
Haryana State was formed on the
recommendation of the Sardar Hukam Singh
Parliamentary Committee.
115. Assam Chief Minister Himanta Biswa Sarma
announced the government’s aim to completely
withdraw AFSPA, Armed Forces (Special
Powers) Act, from the state by the end of 2023.
In context to the same tell us, In which of the
following states Armed forces Special Powers
Act (AFSPA) was imposed for the first time?
(A) 7-North east states
(B) Manipur
(C) Jammu and Kashmir
(D) PunjabAns: (A)
Exp: Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA)
It is a Parliamentary act that grants special
powers to the Indian Armed Forces and the state
and paramilitary forces in areas classified as
“disturbed areas”.
The objective to implement the AFSPA Act is to
maintain law and order in the disturbed areas.
AFSPA became a law on September 11, 1958.
Initially, it applied to the seven Northeastern
states of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur,
Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, and Tripura.
AFSPA was extended to J&K in 1990.
116. The third edition of ‘Khelo India’ Games in Uttar
Pradesh is set to kick off, with participation from
over 4,000 athletes and officials representing
207 universities. In context to the same tell us,
Rajiv Gandhi Khel Abhiyan was launched in
which year?
(A) 2012
(B) 2011
(C) 2014
(D) 2010
Ans: (C)
Exp: Rajiv Gandhi Khel Abhiyan was a centrally
sponsored scheme l
Launched in 2014. It was launched in place of
erstwhile Panchayat Yuva Krida aur Khel
Abhiyan (PYKKA). RGKA aimed at
constructing sports complexes in each block and
exclusively both for indoor and outdoor in
different sports discipline for 5 years.
117. Google Pay’s support for RuPay credit cards on
UPI is a significant step towards expanding the
digital payment landscape in India. In context to
the same tell us, What is RuPay?
(A) Indian version of payment card
(B) Online portal for payments
(C) Electronic money
(D) Indian bitcoin
Ans: (A)
Exp: RuPay is Indian multinational financial services
and payment service conceived and launched by
the National Payments Corporation of India on
26 March 2012. It was created to fulfill the
Reserve Bank of India’s vision of establishing a
domestic, open, and multilateral system of
payments. On 20 March 2012, the National
Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) launched
the RuPay Card.
118. Namdev Shirgaonkar of Maharashtra was reelected
unopposed as the President of India
Taekwondo in elections for the executive
committee. In context to the same tell us,
Taekwondo was developed in which country?
(A) Japan
(B) Korea
(C) China
(D) Cambodia
Ans: (B)
Exp: Taekwondo is a traditional Korean martial art,
which means the way of kicking and punching.
In taekwondo, hands and feet can be used to
overcome an opponent, but the trademark of the
sport is its combination of kick movements. The
origin of taekwondo dates back to Korea’s
Three-Kingdom era (c.50 BC), when Silla
Dynasty warriors, the Hwarang, began to
develop a martial art: Taekkyon (foot-hand).
During the early 20th century, taekwondo
became the dominant form of martial arts
practiced in Korea. In 1973, the World
Taekwondo Federation (WTF) was founded as
the worldwide legitimate governing body of the
sport, and the first World Championships were
held in Seoul, Korea that year.
119. Axiom Space’s Ax-2 mission represents an
important step in understanding the effects of the
space environment on human stem cell ageing,
inflammation, and cancer. In context to space
exploration tell us, The Luna Programme was a
series of unmanned space mission launched by
which country?
(A) Soviet Union
(B) United States of America
(C) China
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A)
Exp: Luna Programme was a series of unmanned
space mission of the Soviet Union sent to the
Moon between 1959 and 1976. It was designed
as either an orbiter or lander and accomplished
many firsts in space exploration.
120. Dr K. Govindaraj elected as the President of
International Basketball Federation (FIBA),
Asia. In context to the same tell us, In which
country, the basketball game was invented? Basketball was invented by Springfield College
instructor and graduate student James Naismith
in 1891 in USA. James Naismith was a
Canadian-American physical educator,
physician, Christian chaplain, and sports coach,
best known as the inventor of the game of
basketball. After moving to the United States, he
wrote the original basketball rule book and
founded the University of Kansas basketball
program.
121. World Thyroid Awareness Day has recently
been observed on May 25. In context to thyroid
gland tell us, which of the following disease is
not related to thyroid glands?
(A) Cretinism
(B) Myxoedema
(C) Goitre
(D) Acromegaly
Ans: (D)
Exp: Acromegaly is caused by the hypersecretion of
growth hormone from pituitary gland in adults.
It is characterized by disproportionate increase
in size of bones of face, hands and feet. Some
important disorders related to thyroid glands are
Grave’s disease, cretinism, myxoedema or
Gull’s disease, goitre, Hashimoto’s disease, etc.
122. Historic scepter ‘sengol’ finds home in new
parliament building. In context to the same tell
us, the “sengol” was originally handed over to
whom by Lord Mountbatten on August 14,
1947?
(A) Pt Jawaharlal Nehru (B) Dr Rajendra Prasad
(C) Mahatma Gandhi (D) Nelson Mandela
Ans: (A)
Exp: The Sengol sceptre, measuring an impressive
five feet in length, is a remarkable creation made
from silver and gold. It carries a rich history as it
was originally handed over to Pandit Jawaharlal
Nehru by Lord Mountbatten on August 14, 1947,
symbolizing the momentous transfer of power
during India’s Independence. Subsequently, the
sceptre was put on display at The Allahabad
Museum, allowing visitors to appreciate its
historical significance. The golden scepter has its
origins in the Chola empire, where it was used as
a symbol of power transfer from one king to
another. It had a carving of the Nandi atop it,
which is said to be a symbol of justice.
123. Hari Budha Magar, a former Gurkha soldier
from Nepal who lost both his legs, made historyby successfully climbing Mount Everest using
prosthetic legs. In context to Mountauneering
tell us, which of the below persons did not climb
Mount Everest?
(A) Kami Riti Sherpa
(B) Tenzing norway
(C) Santosh Yadav
(D) Anjum Moudgil
Ans: (D)
Exp: Anjum Moudgil is one of India’s top shooters in
rifle events. She competes in the 10m air rifle
and the 50m rifle 3 positions events.
The Government of India conferred her with the
Arjuna Award in 2019. Anjum Moudgil is
employed by Punjab Police as a sub-inspector.
Kami Rita Sherpa – He is a mountaineer and is
known for climbing Mount Everest the
maximum number of times. He is nicknamed
Super Sherpa.
Edmund Hillary – He was born in New Zealand
in 1919. He along with Tenzing Norway was the
first man to climb Everest.
Tenzing Norway – He was a Nepali Indian
mountaineer. He was the first person to climb
Everest.
Santosh Yadav – Santosh Yadav is a female
mountaineer from India. She was born in
Haryana. She is the first Indian woman to climb
Everest twice.
124. Georgi Gospodinov’s captivating novel, “Time
Shelter,” translated by Angela Rodel, has
secured the prestigious 2023 International
Booker Prize. In context to the same tell us,
Which of the following authors won the Booker
Prize twice?
(A) Margaret Atwood
(B) JM Coetzee
(C) Gtaham Swift
(D) Ian McEwan
Ans: (B)
Exp: Coetzee was the first writer to be awarded the
Booker Prize twice: for “Life & Times of
Michael K” in 1983, and for “Disgrace” in 1999.
125. Microsoft has launched Jugalbandi, a generative
AI-driven multilingual chatbot accessible via
popular messaging platform, WhatsApp. In
context to computer tell us, Which feature in
LibreOffice Impress allows you to rehearse and
time your presentation to ensure effective
delivery?
(A) Slide transitions
(B) Slide show rehearse timings
(C) Slide sorter
(D) Slide show settings
Ans: (B)
Exp: The Slide show rehearse timings feature in
LibreOffice Impress allows you to rehearse and
time your presentation to ensure effective
delivery. With this feature, you can run through
your presentation, record the time taken for each
slide, and receive feedback on your timing. It
helps you practice and refine your presentation,
ensuring that you stay on track and deliver a
well-paced talk.
126. Which country has removed from UNSG report
on impact of armed conflict on children?
(A) China
(B) Afghanistan
(C) India
(D) Pakistan
Ans: (C)
Exp: UN SG Antonio Guterres has removed India
from his annual report on the impact of armed
conflict on children
The United Nations verified the killing (253) and
maiming (656) of 909 children (732 boys, 177
girls), attributed to unidentified perpetrators
(694).
Islamic State in Iraq and the Levant-Khorasan
(ISIL-KP) (112), the Taliban (98) and crossborder
shelling from Pakistan (five)
127. The recently launched “one-tap-one-tree”
campaign is associated with which state?
(A) Bihar (B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Rajasthan (D) Madhya Pradesh
Ans: (B)
Exp: Uttar Pradesh (UP) will launch a “one-tap-onetree”
campaign from July 01.
As part of this, free saplings will be distributed
with each new tap connection in rural areas of
the state.
The campaign is being launched jointly by the
Namami Gange Programme and Rural Water
Supply Department.
The aim of the campaign is to expand green
cover while ensuring potable tap water in rural
areas.
128. Which state has won the Senior Women’s
National Football Championship?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Kerala
(C) Karnataka
(D) Odisha
Ans: (A) Exp: Tamil Nadu won the Senior Women’s National
Football Championship for the second time.
They defeated Haryana 2-1 in the final at the
Guru Nanak Stadium in Amritsar.
Priyadharshini S and Indumathi Kathiresan
scored the goals for Tamil Nadu. Renu Rani
scored the goal for Haryana. Tamil Nadu had last
won the title in 2018. This is their third overall
title. They also won the title in 1991.
129. The biggest air exercise of Indian Air force
“Tarang Shakti” will consist of how many
countries?
(A) 12
(B) 15
(C) 13
(D) 18
Ans: (A)
Exp: The exercise, named Tarang Shakti, is slated to
be the biggest air exercise to be conducted in
India.
Participating countries will join the exercise
with both military combat jets and transport
aircraft, among other assets.
The exercise is expected to involve forces from
12 countries, including the United States, the
United Kingdom, France, Russia, China, and
Pakistan.
130. What is the price has been approved by the
central government for sugarcane farmers for the
season 2023-24?
(A) 285 rupees per quintal
(B) 335 rupees per quintal
(C) 350 rupees per quintal
(D) 315 rupees per quintal
Ans: (D)
Exp: The Union Cabinet has approved the fair and
remunerative price of 315 rupees per quintal for
sugarcane farmers for the season 2023-24.
The move will benefit five crore sugarcane
farmers and their dependents.
The government has also decided to bring the
National Research Foundation(NRF) Bill, 2023
to strengthen the research ecosystem in the
country.
131. Aurangzeb Lane in Delhi has been renamed after
whom?
(A) Vikram Sarabhai
(B) Pratibha Patil
(C) Dr APJ Abdul Kalam
(D) Nambi NarayananAns: (C)
Exp: According to the New Delhi Municipal Council,
Aurangzeb Lane in Delhi has been renamed as
Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Lane.
The NDMC has confirmed the renaming of
Aurangzeb Lane in Lutyens’ Delhi.
Earlier, in August 2015 the NDMC changed the
name of Aurangzeb Road to Dr APJ Abdul
Kalam Road.
Satish Upadhyay is the current chairman of New
Delhi Municipal Council.
132. Who has been appointed as the Special Director
in the Central Bureau of Investigation?
(A) Pankaj Goyal
(B) Vijay Kumar
(C) Ajay Bhatnagar
(D) Ajay Kumar
Ans: (C)
Exp: The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet
(ACC) has approved the proposals of the
Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT)
for the appointments of these IPS officers in the
Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI).
Ajay Bhatnagar (IPS) has been appointed as
Special Director in the Central Bureau of
Investigation (CBI).
He is currently serving as Additional Director in
the Cental Govt investigating agency.
According to a DoPT order, he has been
appointed to the post till the date of his
superannuation on November 20, 2024.
133. Which space tourism company has recently
completed first manned mission to space?
(A) Blue Origin
(B) Virgin Galactic
(C) Space Expo
(D) SpaceX
Ans: (B)
Exp: Virgin Galactic achieved a significant milestone
as it successfully conducted its first commercial
suborbital flight, named Galactic 01.
With a crew comprising two Italian air force
officers, an aerospace engineer, a Virgin
Galactic instructor, and two pilots, the VSS
Unity spaceplane soared approximately 80
kilometers (50 miles) above the New Mexico
desert.
After a 75-minute journey, the spaceplane safely
glided back to Earth, landing at Spaceport
America.
Virgin Galactic is an American spaceflight
company founded by Richard Branson in 2004. The US space agency, NASA, and the US air
force define an astronaut as anyone who has
flown at least 80km (50 miles) above Earth.
ISRO’s Gaganyaan mission is India’s maiden
manned space mission.
134. International Day of Parliamentarism 2023 has
been observed on which day?
(A) 30 June
(B) 29 June
(C) 28 June
(D) 01 July
Ans: (A)
Exp: Every year, June 30th marks the celebration of
the International Day of Parliamentarism, a day
dedicated to commemorating the formation of
the Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU).
This year, the International Day of
Parliamentarism will mark its 134th anniversary.
Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU) recently
launched the campaign “Parliaments for the
Planet”.
The International Day of Parliamentarism was
established by the United Nations General
Assembly in 2018 to acknowledge the
importance of parliamentary institutions.
This date holds historical importance as it marks
the establishment of the Inter-Parliamentary
Union (IPU) in 1889.
135. Which batsman has become second-fastest ever
to score 9000 Test runs?
(A) Tom Blundell
(B) Joe Root
(C) Virat Kohli
(D) Steve Smith
Ans: (D)
Exp: Steven Smith, the prominent Australian
batsman, achieved another significant milestone
by becoming the second-fastest player in the
history of Test cricket to reach 9000 runs.
The 34-year-old accomplished this feat in 174
innings, just two innings behind Kumar
Sangakkara, the former Sri Lankan captain, who
achieved the same milestone in 172 innings.
Smith, scoring his 32nd century in Test matches,
equaled Steve Waugh’s record.
136. Who has won the Lausanne Diamond League
2023?
(A) Neeraj Chopra
(B) Julius Yego
(C) Johannes
(D) Keshorn Walcott
Ans: (A) Exp: Olympic gold medalist Neeraj Chopra obtained
the top spot in Lausanne Diamond League 2023
with a best throw of 87.66 m.
Neeraj Chopra’s attempts at Lausanne Diamond
League 2023: No mark, 83.52m, 85.04m, No
mark, 87.66m, 84.15m
Lausanne Diamond League 2023 men’s javelin
throw results –
Athlete – Best Throw
Neeraj Chopra (IND) – 87.66m
Julian Weber (GER) – 87.03m
Jakub Vadlejch (CZE) – 86.13m
Oliver Helander (FIN) – 83.50m
Anderson Peters (GRN) – 82.23m
137. Which country has won the Asian Kabaddi
Championship 2023?
(A) India
(B) Iran
(C) Japan
(D) Korea
Ans: (A)
Exp: In the final of the Asian Kabaddi Championship
2023 held at the Dong-Eui Institute of
Technology Seokdang Cultural Center in Busan,
Republic of Korea, India emerged victorious,
defeating Iran with a score of 42-32.
This marked India’s eighth championship title in
the past nine editions.
Pawan Sehrawat was the captain of the Indian
team.
Six teams: India, Iran, Japan, Korea, Chinese
Taipei and Hong Kong, participated in the Asian
Kabaddi Championships.
138. Which team has won India’s first-ever Historic
Women’s Kabaddi League held in Dubai?
(A) Punjab Panthers
(B) Delhi Dynamites
(C) Uma Kolkata
(D) Gujarat Angels
Ans: (C)
Exp: Uma Kolkata team claimed the championship
title against Punjab Panthers in the India’s firstever
Historic Women’s Kabaddi League held in
Dubai.
The Uma Kolkata team emerging as the
champions, securing a grand prize of
₹10,000,000.
The Punjab team demonstrated commendable
skills and earned the second position, receiving
a prize of ₹5,000,000. This historic event marks the first time that
women kabaddi players from across India have
been given the opportunity to exhibit their skills
and prowess on a global stage.
139. What is the rank of India in the latest FIFA
Men’s Football rankings?
(A) 100
(B) 108
(C) 112
(D) 124
Ans: (A)
Exp: The Indian men’s national football team has
climbed up to the 100th rank on FIFA’s latest
world rankings surpassing teams like Lebanon
and New Zealand to achieve the feat.
This is after five years that the Indian men’s
football team entered the top 100 club after
slipping away from the 96th position in 2018.
The Indian men’s football team reached the
100th rank with a total points of 1204.90.
This is the fourth best ranking achieved by the
Indian men’s football team in the history.
The team’s rank came up to 94th rank in 1996,
99th in 1993 and 96th rank in 2017 to 2018.
140. Who has been named as the Global Indian Icon
at UK-India Awards?
(A) Nikhat Zareen
(B) Mary Kom
(C) Sunil Chhetri
(D) Virat Kohli
Ans: (B)
Exp: Sporting legend and India’s first-ever Olympic
medallist in women’s boxing, Mary Kom, has
been honoured with the Global Indian Icon of
the Year award at the annual UK-India Awards
in Windsor, south-eastern England.
Filmmaker Shekhar Kapur, directing Oscarnominated
“Elizabeth: The Golden Age”
received a Lifetime Achievement Award.
The Nehru Centre in London, the cultural wing
of the Indian High Commission, won the UKIndia
Award for Significant Contribution to UKIndia
Relations.
141. Which company now become the principal
jersey sponsor of Indian cricket team?
(A) Cricbuzz
(B) Dream11
(C) ESPNcric
(D) Vivo
Ans: (B)
Exp: The popular fantasy gaming platform Dream11
has reportedly taken over as the main jersey
sponsor for the Indian cricket team from July
2023 to March 2026, replacing Byju’s. The deal was reportedly secured at a base price
of Rs 358 crore.
Wills and ITC were the sponsors of the jerseys
for close to a decade in the 90s before Sahara
came on board and remained for the longest
time.
142. Bir Devinder Singh, who has passed away
recently, was the former deputy speaker of
which state?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Punjab
(C) Haryana
(D) Bihar
Ans: (B)
Exp: Former Punjab assembly deputy speaker Bir
Devinder Singh passes away.
Having started out as a leader of the All India
Students’ Federation (AISSF), Bir Devinder was
elected MLA for the first time from Sirhind in
1980 on a Congress ticket.
He later won from the Kharar assembly
constituency in 2002.
He served as the deputy speaker of the Vidhan
Sabha between 2003 and 2004 during the
Amarinder Singh-led Congress regime in
Punjab.
He was expelled from the Congress in 2016 and
joined the Shiromani Akali Dal (Taksali) in
2019.
143. Audi has appointed whom as its new CEO of the
Board of Management?
(A) Xavier Ros
(B) Gernot Dollner
(C) Balbir Singh
(D) Gerd Walker
Ans: (B)
Exp: German luxury carmaker Audi AG has
announced the appointment of Gernot Dollner as
its new CEO.
Dollner, currently heading Volkswagen Group’s
Product and Group Strategy, will succeed
Markus Duesmann as Chairman of the Board of
Management.
Audi AG is a German automotive manufacturer
of luxury vehicles headquartered in Ingolstadt,
Bavaria, Germany.
Parent organization of Audi AG is Volkswagen
Group.
Balbir Singh Dhillon is the Head of Audi India .
144. Recently, India’s biggest natural arch has been
discovered by GSI in which state?
(A) Punjab
(B) Haryana
(C) Assam
(D) Odisha
Ans: (D)
Exp: The Geological Survey of India’s (GSI) state
unit has discovered a magnificent “Natural
Arch” located in the Kanika range of Sundargarh
forest division.
This geological marvel is believed to have
originated during the Jurassic period.
GSI has also proposed Geo Heritage tag for
“Natural Arch”.
If it is done, it will become the biggest natural
arch of the country to have the Geo Heritage tag.
This oval-shaped arch has a length of 30 metres
at the base and is 12 metre high.
The alcove of the natural arch, has maximum
height and width of 7 metres and 15 metres
respectively.
145. Indian Institute of Technology will open its firstever
overseas campus in which country?
(A) Kenya
(B) Uganda
(C) Ethiopia
(D) Tanzania
Ans: (D)
Exp: IIT will open its first overseas campus with a
batch of 50 undergraduate students and 20
master’s students in Tanzania in October 2023.
Zanzibar will be one of three campuses of IIT
which will be located outside of India. The other
campuses will be set up in Abu Dhabi and Kuala
Lumpur.
These campuses are designed to serve their
respective region. The campus at Zanzibar will
serve the greater East African region.
The Zanzibar campus of IIT will have the same
international recognition that IIT Madras enjoys.
Students from Zanzibar will eventually have
access to the same benefits which are enjoyed by
students in Madras.
The establishment of IIT in Zanzibar is a
significant step towards strengthening the ties
between India and Africa.
146. The government of India has decided to reduce
the GST rate on electronic items to what
maximum percent?
(A) 28%
(B) 20%
(C) 18%
(D) 15%
Ans: (C)
Exp: The Union Finance Ministry recently announced
a reduction in the Goods and Services Tax
(GST) for electronic items on the sixthanniversary of the GST implementation on July
1.
The list of electronic products includes mobile
phones, TVs up to 27 inches, refrigerators,
washing machines, and others.
With the aim of making home appliances more
affordable, the Finance Ministry has lowered the
GST rates for various items.
Refrigerators, washing machines, fans, coolers,
geysers, and similar products will now be
subject to a reduced GST rate of 18 percent,
previously at 31.3 percent.
In June, the total GST revenue collected
experienced a minimal increase of 2.80 percent,
reaching Rs 1,61,497 crore, as compared to the
collection of Rs 1,57,090 crore in May.
147. Who has been appointed as the Solicitor General
of India?
(A) Tushar Meht
(B) Mukul Rohatgi
(C) Ranjit Kumar
(D) K K Venugopal
Ans: (A)
Exp: Tushar Mehta, the incumbent Solicitor General
of India, has been reappointed for a three-year
term by the Appointments Committee of Cabinet
(ACC).
In addition to Tushar Mehta, six other law
officers have been granted extensions as
Additional Solicitor Generals (ASGs) in the
Supreme Court, however their duration of terms
are yet to be issued.
These ASGs include Vikramjeet Banerjee, KM
Nataraj, Balbir Singh, Suryaprakash V Raju, N
Venkatraman, and Aishwarya Bhati.
As the highest law officer in the country after the
Attorney General, the Solicitor General plays a
crucial role in representing the government’s
interests in various legal matters.
148. Who has sworn in as deputy chief minister of
Maharashtra in July 2023?
(A) Praful Patel
(B) Sharad Pawar
(C) Supriya Sule
(D) Ajit Pawar
Ans: (D)
Exp: Nationalist Congress Party (NCP) leader Ajit
Pawar, who took oath as the Deputy chief
minister of Maharashtra after joining the Eknath
Shinde-led government, is the son of Sharad
Pawar’s elder brother AnantraoHe made his first foray into politics by being
elected to the board of a sugar cooperative in
1982.
Maharashtra –
Chief minister: Eknath Shinde
Capital: Mumbai
Governor: Ramesh Bais
149. World UFO Day 2023 has been observed on
which day?
(A) 01 July
(B) 02 July
(C) 03 July
(D) 04 July
Ans: (B)
Exp: World UFO Day, celebrated annually on July 2,
serves as a platform for individuals around the
globe to delve into the intriguing realm of
Unidentified Flying Objects (UFOs).
This day, initially observed on June 24, aims to
raise awareness about UFOs.
World UFO Day is observed annually on July 2
worldwide
First UFO was spotted on June 24, 1947 in
Washinton D.C.,US
Full form of UFO is Unidentified Flying Objects
150. What is the name of the ambassador of India to
the WTO, whose tenure has been extended for
nine months?
(A) Naveen Srivastava
(B) Reenat Sandhu
(C) Brajendra Navnit
(D) Ruchira Kamboj
Ans: (C)
Exp: Indian government announced the extension of
Brajendra Navnit’s tenure as Ambassador and
Permanent Representative of India to the World
Trade Organization (WTO) by nine months.
This decision comes ahead of the crucial 13th
ministerial conference of the WTO in 2024.
Navnit’s extended term demonstrates India’s
commitment to promoting its key priorities on
the global trade stage.
Brajendra Navnit assumed office as India’s
Ambassador to the WTO in June 2020, with his
initial tenure scheduled to end on June 28, 2023.
151. Central government’s fiscal deficit at May-end
2023 narrowed to what percent of the annual
budget estimates?
(A) 18%
(B) 11.8%
(C) 22%
(D) 10.3%
Ans: (B) Exp: According to official data released by the
Controller General of Accounts (CGA), the
central government’s fiscal deficit for the
financial year 2023-24 stood at Rs 2.1 lakh crore
or 11.8% of the full-year budget estimates at the
end of May 2023.
In May 2022, the fiscal deficit was reported to
be 12.3% of the budget estimates for the
financial year 2022-23.
Fiscal deficit represents the difference between
the total expenditure and revenue of the
government. It is a crucial indicator of the
government’s borrowing needs. The reduction in
fiscal deficit implies a decrease in the amount of
borrowing required by the government to
finance its operations.
152. Who has won the Austrian Grand Prix 2023?
(A) Daniel Ricciardo
(B) Fernando Alonso
(C) Charles Leclerc
(D) Max Verstappen
Ans: (D)
Exp: Max Verstappen has secured a commanding
victory at the Austrian Grand Prix 2023.
This win further solidified his pursuit of a third
consecutive world title.
Previous race’s winners list:
Race – Winner
Canadian Grand Prix – Max Verstappen
Spanish Grand Prix 2023 – Max Verstappen
Monaco Grand Prix 2023 – Max Verstappen
Bahrain Grand Prix 2023 – Max Verstappen
Saudi Arabia Grand Prix 2023 – Sergio Pérez
Azerbaijan Grand Prix 2023 – Sergio Pérez
153. According to the Institute for Economics and
Peace, which country is the least peaceful
country in the world?
(A) Afghanistan
(B) Yemen
(C) Syria
(D) Russia
Ans: (A)
Exp: Afghanistan is the least peaceful country in the
world for the fifth consecutive year, according to
the ‘Global Peace Index 2023’ report released by
the Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP) on
2 July 2023.
Afghanistan follows Yemen, Syria, Russia, and
South Sudan.India stands at 126 ranks out of 163 countries in the Global Peace Index.
154. Who has been taken over as the chairman of
Coal India?
(A) Binay Dayal
(B) Ram Prakash
(C) Anuj Srivastava
(D) PM Prasad
Ans: (D)
Exp: P M Prasad, Chairman-cum-Managing Director,
of Central Coalfields Limited (CCL) has been
appointed as Chairman-cum-Managing Director
in Coal India Limited (CIL).
He succeeds Pramod Agrawal who stepped
down on 30 June.
He has over 30-year experience in the coal
mining sector and is a post-graduate in mining
engineering from the Indian School of Mines IIT
Dhanbad.
155. Union Home Min Amit Shah launches Akshar
River Cruise in which city?
(A) Ahmedabad
(B) Varanasi
(C) Ayodhya
(D) Mumbai
Ans: (A)
Exp: Union Home Minister Amit Shah launched the
‘Akshar’ cruise on the Sabarmati River on 2 July
2023.
The ‘Akshar River Cruise’ is a 30-meter-long
luxury cruise equipped with safety measures.
The cruise will offer live music and vegetarian
and Jain food, making it a new attraction for
Ahmedabad.
The riverfront was constructed during the tenure
of PM Narendra Modi as the CM of Gujarat.
156. Which Indian tennis player has won career’s 1st
ATP Tour tennis title at Mallorca Open?
(A) Saketh Myneni
(B) Yuki Bhambri
(C) P Gunneswaran
(D) Sumit Nagal
Ans: (B)
Exp: Indian tennis player, Yuki Bhambri won his first
ATP Tour title in the Mallorca Open 2023 men’s
doubles final.
Bhambri collaborated with South Africa’s Lloyd
Harris to beat Robin Haase and Philipp Oswald
in the final.
Bhambri and Myneni also won their first Grand
Slam match at the French Open 2023.Yuki Bhambri is a former junior world No 1 in singles.
157. Project WAVE has been launched by which
bank?
(A) Indian Bank
(B) HDFC Bank
(C) Axis Bank
(D) Canara Bank
Ans: (A)
Exp: Indian Bank has launched new services under its
digital transformation initiative, Project WAVE.
The bank has partnered with National EGovernance
Services Ltd (NeSL) to introduce an
electronic bank guarantee (e-BG) service.
It has also launched a facility for pre-approved
business loans through a digital process.
The process of digitization under Project WAVE
was launched in Jan 2022.
158. Which city has hosted the G-20 Research and
Innovation Initiative Gathering (RIIG) Summit?
(A) Chennai
(B) New Delhi
(C) Mumbai
(D) Kolkata
Ans: (C)
Exp: Mumbai has hosted the G-20 Research and
Innovation Initiative Gathering (RIIG) Summit
and Research Ministers’ Meeting on 4th and 5th
July 2023.
The RIIG Summit was chaired by the Secretary,
Department of Science and Technology (DST),
Dr Srivari Chandrasekhar.
The Research Ministers’ Meeting (RMM) was
chaired by Union Minister Dr Jitendra Singh on
5th July 2023.
159. Which ministry has organized a G20 conference
on crime and security in Gurugram?
(A) Ministry of Home Affairs
(B) Ministry of External Affairs
(C) Ministry of Defence
(D) Ministry of Tribal Affairs Ans: (A)
Exp: The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) will
organize a G20 conference on crime and security
in Gurugram.
Representatives from G20 member countries
and other countries will attend the conference.
The conference will focus on discussing ways to
combat crime and terrorism.
The conference will also look at ways to
improve cooperation between countries in the fight against crime and terrorism.
160. Who has broken the national record in the
women’s 100m backstroke event?
(A) Srihari Nataraj
(B) Sajan Prakash
(C) Shivani Kataria
(D) Manna Patel
Ans: (D) Exp: Swimmer Manna Patel broke the national record
in the women’s 100m backstroke event at the
ongoing National Swimming Championships in
Patiala
Patel clocked 59.99 seconds to finish first in the
event, breaking the previous record of 60.23
seconds set by Shikha Tandon in 20The 23-year-old swimmer is also a two-time
Olympian, having represented India at the Rio
2016 and Tokyo 2020 Games.
161. Who has been appointed as the new Additional
Secretary of the Department of Military Affairs?
(A) Arti Sarin
(B) Tarun Sobti
(C) Sanjay Singh
(D) Atul Anand
Ans: (D)
Exp: Vice Admiral Atul Anand appointed as the new
Additional Secretary of the Department of
Military Affairs (DMA).
He joined the Indian Navy in 1988 and is an
alumnus of National Defence Academy.
He has received Ati Vishisht Seva Medal
(AVSM) and Vishisht Seva Medal (VSM) for
his services.
He also commanded Torpedo Recovery Vessel
INTRV A72 and destroyer INS Mumbai.
162. Name the British children’s writer who has been
awarded by the PEN Pinter Prize 2023?
(A) Eddie Rosen
(B) Michael Rosen
(C) Quentin Blake
(D) Harold Rosen
Ans: (B)
Exp: Renowned children’s writer and performance
poet, Michael Rosen has been honored with the
esteemed PEN Pinter Prize 2023.
This prestigious award is bestowed upon a writer
hailing from the United Kingdom, Ireland, or the
Commonwealth.
Michael Rosen has authored several acclaimed
books, including “You Can’t Catch Me” (1982),
which received the Signal Poetry Award.
Another notable work is “You Wait Till I Am
Older Than You” (1996), along with “Rover”
(2007) and “Fantastic Mr Dahl” (2012), which
explores the life and writings of Roald Dahl.
163. What is the capacity of India’s first indigenous
nuclear reactor which has recently started
commercial operation in Gujarat?
(A) 500 MW
(B) 600 MW
(C) 700 MW
(D) 900 MWAns: (C)
Exp: India’s first indigenously developed 700 MW
nuclear power reactor at the Kakrapar Atomic
Power Project in Gujarat has successfully
commenced commercial operations.
Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited –
The Nuclear Power Corporation of India
Limited (NPCIL) is an Indian public sector
undertaking, Headquartered at Mumbai.
It is wholly owned by the Government of India
and is responsible for the generation of nuclear
power for electricity.
NPCIL is administered by the Department of
Atomic Energy (DAE).
164. State Bank of India’s has appointed whom as its
Chief Financial Officer?
(A) Kameshwar Rao Kodavanti
(B) Ketan S Vikamsey
(C) Charanjit Surinder Singh
(D) Rajesh Kumar Dubey
Ans: (A)
Exp: State Bank of India, the country’s largest lender,
has announced the appointment of Kameshwar
Rao Kodavanti as its Chief Financial Officer
(CFO).
Kodavanti, who has been with the bank since
1991, assumed the position on July 1, 2023.
This article provides details about Kodavanti’s
appointment and his professional background.
State Bank of India (SBI) holds the distinction
of being the largest bank in India, both in terms
of assets and customer base.
165. Which state government has launched
“Jagananna Amma Vodi” scheme, with a
financial assistance of Rs 6392 crore?
(A) Telangana
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Kerala
Ans: (C)
Exp: Chief Minister YS Jagan Mohan Reddy of
Andhra Pradesh has launched Jagananna Amma
Vodi scheme for promoting education and
empowering mothers.
With an allocation of Rs 6392 crore, this
initiative aims to provide financial assistance to
approximately 42 lakh mothers.
Also, offering them an annual gift of Rs 15,000
for sending their children to school.
Jagananna Ammavodi was launched by Chief
minister of Andhra Pradesh Y S Jagan Mohan
Reddy on 9 January 2020.
This is the fourth edition of this scheme.
166. QU Dongyu has been re-elected for second term
as Director-General of which organisation?
(A) UNICEF
(B) FAO
(C) UNESCO
(D) WFP
Ans: (B)
Exp: QU Dongyu was re-elected to a second term as
Director-General of the Food and Agriculture
Organization of the United Nations (FAO).
He was elected during the 43rd session of the
conference of the United Nations Food and
Agriculture Organization (FAO) held in Rome,
Italy.
In 2019, Qu-Dongyu was elected as the head of
the FAO and becomes the first Chinese national
to serve in the position.
About FAO –
The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
was founded on 16 October 1945 in Quebec
City, Canada.
The organization has 194 member countries and
one member organization (the European Union).
The organization works in over 130 countries
worldwide.
The organization also hosts World Food Day
every year on 16 October to raise awareness
about hunger and malnutrition.
Headquarters: Rome, Ita
167. Union govt has appointed whom as the National
Cybersecurity Coordinator (NCSC)?
(A) Ajai Kumar
(B) M U Nair
(C) KK Repswal
(D) S H Iyer
Ans: (B)
Exp: Union govt has appointed Lieutenant general M
U Nair as the National Cybersecurity
Coordinator (NCSC).
Lt Gen Nair took on the role of the 28th Signal
Officer-in-Chief in July 2022.
He has expertise in the areas of cyber warfare,
signal intelligence, and communication &
information technology.
He also held the position of commandant at the
Military College of Telecommunication
Engineering.
168. Who has been appointed as the chairman of
Men’s Selection Committee by BCCI?
(A) Zaheer Khan
(B) Javagal Srinath
(C) Ashish Nehra
(D) Ajit Agarkar
Ans: (D)
Exp: Ajit Agarkar has been appointed as the chairman
of the Senior Men’s Selection Committee by the
BCCI.
The Senior Men’s Selection Committee now
consists of Ajit Agarkar (Chairperson), Shiv
Sundar Das, Subroto Banerjee, Salil Ankola, and
Sridharan Sharath.
Agarkar represented India in 26 Tests, 191
ODIs, and four T20Is, in addition to playing 110
first-class, 270 List A, and 62 T20 matches.
169.India has won 9th South Asian Football
Federation Championship by beating whom?
(A) Kuwait
(B) Maldives
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Sri Lanka
Ans: (A)
Exp: India defeated Kuwait by 5-4 in the penalty
shootout of the final of the South Asian Football
Federation (SAFF) Championship at the Sree
Kanteerava Stadium in Bengaluru.
This was the second time India won in the
penalty shootout.
Chhangte was named AIFF Men’s Player of the
Year on 4 July 2023.
Sunil Chhetri, Sandesh Jhingan scored for India
in the penalty shootout.
170. 132nd edition of Durand Cup tournament will be
organized in which city?
(A) Chennai
(B) Bengaluru
(C) Kolkata
(D) New Delhi
Ans: (C)
Exp: The 132nd edition of the Durand Cup is
scheduled to commence at Kolkata from 03
August to 03 September 2023.
It is the India’s oldest football tournament.
From August 3 to September 3,2023, a total of
24 teams will compete for the prestigious cup
across four venues – Guwahati and Kokrajhar in
Assam, Shillong in Meghalaya and Kolkata in
West Bengal.
Durand Cup was established in: 1888
President of All India Foootball Federation
(AIFF) is: Mr Kalyan Chaubey
171. Who has been named as the AIFF Men’s
Footballer of the Year for 2022-23?
(A) Lallianzuala Chhangte
(B) Udanta Singh Kumam
(C) Sandesh Jhingan
(D) Gurpreet Singh Sandhu
Ans: (A)
Exp: Indian football team midfielder Lallianzuala
Chhangte was named the AIFF Men’s Footballer
of the Year for 2022-23
Manisha Kalyan won her second consecutive
Women’s Footballer of the Year award.
The 26-year-old Lallianzuala Chhangte beat
Nandhakumar Sekar and Naorem Mahesh Singh
of East Bengal to win the award.
The Mizoram player was also the highest scorer
among Indians in the Indian Super League (ISL)
2022-23 season with 10 goals and six assists in
22 appearances.
Meanwhile, Manisha Kalyan pipped Dalima
Chhibber and Ngangbam Sweety Devi to the
AIFF Women’s Player of the Year 2022-23
award.
172. Which country has recently become full member
of Shanghai Cooperation Organisation in July
2023?
(A) Israel (B) Iran
(C) Russia (D) Türkiye
Ans: (B)
Exp: Iran has officially become a full member of the
Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)
during an India-hosted virtual summit of the
influential grouping.
As the current chair of the SCO, India hosted the
summit.
The SCO was founded in 2001 at a summit in
Shanghai, China, by the presidents of Russia,
China, the Kyrgyz Republic, Kazakhstan,
Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan.
India and Pakistan became permanent members
of the SCO in 2017, further expanding the
organization’s reach and influence.
173. Prime Minister Narendra Modi has inaugurated
the Sai Hira Global Convention Centre in which
state?
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Telangana
(C) Tamil Nadu (D) Karnataka
Ans: (A)
Exp: Prime Minister Narendra Modi virtually
inaugurated the Sai Hira Global Convention
Centre in Puttaparthi, Andhra Pradesh.
The Convention Centre, constructed by the Sri
Sathya Sai Central Trust, stands as a testament
to the vision of promoting cultural exchange,
spirituality, and global harmony.
The Prime Minister emphasized that the next 25
years of India’s Independence would be
regarded as the “Kartavya Kaal” (Era of Duties).
174. India’s first “Police Drone Unit” has been
launched in which city?
(A) Lucknow (B) Chandigarh
(C) Rajkot (D) Chennai
Ans: (D)
Exp: The Greater Chennai City Police (GCP) has
launched “Police Drone Unit” for aerial
surveillance over vast areas and quick detection
of criminal activities.
The project costs approximately Rs 3.6 crore.
It was inaugurated by outgoing Tamil Nadu
Director General of Police C Sylendra Babu.
According to the police, a total of nine drones
under three categories are available in this unit:
Quick Response Surveillance Drones (6), Heavy
Lift Multirotor Drone (1) and Long Range
Survey Wing Place (2).
175. King Charles III and Queen Camilla has recently
presented the prestigious “Tara” award to
whom?
(A) Resul Pookutty (B) Satyajit Ray
(C) Kartiki Gonsalves (D) Guneet Monga
Ans: (C)
Exp: King Charles III and Queen Camilla of the
United Kingdom recently presented the
prestigious Elephant Family environmental
award to Indian conservationists.
The award ceremony recognized filmmaker
Kartiki Gonsalves, the creative mind behind the
Oscar-winning documentary “The Elephant
Whisperers”, and the Real Elephant Collective
(TREC), a group of 70 Adivasi artists.
Kartiki Gonsalves, the debut director of the
acclaimed documentary “The Elephant
Whisperers”, received the Tara Award from
King Charles III and Queen Camilla.
176.The number of Vedas is-
(A) One (B) Two
(C) Three (D) Four
Ans. (D)
Vyasa is the compiler of the Vedas, who
arranged the four kinds of mantras into four
Samhitas (Collections). There are four Vedas:
the Rigveda, the Yajurveda, the Samaveda and
the Atharvaveda.
177. Kalibanga is located in the site related to the
Harappan civilization-
(A) In Gujarat (B) In Rajasthan
(C) In Uttar Pradesh (D) In Bengal
Ans. (B)
Kalibangan is a part of the ancient Indus Valley
Civilization, located in present Hanumangarh
district Rajasthan
178. Who was the 24th Tirthankar of Jainism-
(A) Rishabh dev (B) Mahavir Swami
(C) Parshvanath (D) Aristhenemi
Ans. (B)
The 24th and last tirthankara of present halfcycle
was Mahavira swami (599–527 BC).
179. Dahir was the ruler of which of the following?
(A) Multan (B) Kabul
(C) Sindh (D) Balochistan
Ans. (C)
Raja Dahar (663 – 712 CE) was the last Hindu
ruler of the Brahmin Dynasty of Sindh (presentday
Pakistan). In 711 CE, his kingdom was
conquered by the Ummayad Caliphate led by
General Muhammad bin Qasim.
180. Which Muslims invaded India first?
(A) Turk (B) Arab
(C) Khurasani (D) Mamaluk
Ans. (B)
Exp: Arab Muslims first invaded India.
181. Who got the title of Jahansoz?
(A) Mahmud Ghazni (B) Sabuktagin
(C) Sultan alauddin (D) khwarezm shah
Ans. (C)
Exp: Sultan alauddin got the title of Jahansoz
182. Jaypal fought the war against whom?
(A) Mahmud Ghazni (B) alpatgin
(C) Sabuktagin (D) Muhammad Ghori
Ans. (C)
Exp: Battle of Peshawar, was fought on 27
November 1001 between the Ghaznavid army
of Sultan Mahmud bin Sebuktigin
(Mahmud of Ghazni) and the Hindu Shahi
army of Jayapala, near Peshawar.
183. When was the second battle of tarain fought?
(A) 1192 (B) 1526
(C) 1556 (D) 1761
Ans. (A)
Exp: Second Battle of Tarain. The Second Battle
of Tarian (Taraori) was again fought between
Ghurid army of Mohammed Ghori and
Rajput army of Prithviraj Chauhan. The
battle took place in 1192 (A)D near Tarain.
In this battle, Prithviraj Chauhan was
defeated by Mohammed Ghori
184. The Gandhara art – a style of Buddhist visual
art that developed between 1st century BCE
and the 7th century CE, flourished largely
during the ____ dynasty.
(A) Kushan (B) Gupta
(C) Pallava (D) Maurya
Ans. (A)
Exp: The Gandhāran style flourished and achieved
its peak during the Kushan period Gandhara art
developed very rapidly during the time of
Kanishka. Stupas made by Kanishka in Bharhut
and Sanchi are examples of Gandhara
art.
185. Which ruler of Bengal had relations with
China?
(A) Ghiyasuddin Azamshah
(B) Sikandar Shah
(C) Nusrat Shah
(D) Hussein Shah
Ans. (A)
Exp: Ghiyasuddin Azam Shah was the third Sultan of
Bengal and the Ilyas Shahi dynasty. He was one
of the most prominent medieval Bengali sultans.
He established diplomatic relations with the
Ming Empire of China.
186. In which year, Akbar built a hall called the
Ibadat Khana (“House of Worship”) at Fatehpur
Sikri.
(A) 1562 (B) 1580
(C) 1582 (D) 1575
Ans. (D)
Exp: In 1575, he built a hall called the Ibadat Khana
(“House of Worship”) at Fatehpur Sikri, to
which he invited theologians, mystics and
selected courtiers renowned for their intellectual
achievements and discussed matters of
spirituality with them
187. Which of the following is the religious text of
the Jews?
(A) Dhammapada (B) Torah
(C) Sahib (D) Tripatika
Ans. (B)
Exp: The Torah is part of the larger text known as the
Tanakh or the Hebrew Bible, and supplemental
oral tradition represented by later texts such as
the Midrash and the Talmud. With between 14.5
and 17.4 million adherents worldwide, Judaism
is the tenth largest religion in the world.
188. Who among the following pioneered Khilafat
Movement?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Ali Brothers
(C) M A Jinnah (D) Sir Syed Ahmed
Khan
Ans. (B)
Exp: The Khilafat movement, also known as the
Indian Muslim movement, was a pan-Islamist
political protest campaign launched by Muslims
of British India led by Shaukat Ali, Mohammad
Ali Jauhar and Abul Kalam.
189. The National song of India, Vande Mataram
was composed in ____ language.
(A) Pali (B) Urdu
(C) Bengali (D) Sanskrit
Ans. (D)
Exp: The song Vande Mataram, composed in Sanskrit
by Bankimchandra Chatterji, was a source of
inspiration to the people in their struggle for
freedom. The first political occasion when it was
sung was the 1896 session of the Indian National
Congress.
190. Who was the viceroy at the time of
Jallianwala Bagh Massacre?
(A) Lord Curzon (B) Lord Ripon
(C) Lord Chelmsford (D) Lord Canning
Ans. (C)
Exp: Lord Chelmsford was the Viceroy of India when
Jallianwala Bagh Massacre took place on April
13, 1919.
191. Which of the following was not a feature of
Indus Valley Civilization?
(A) Use of Iron (B) Town Planning
(C) Drainage system (D) Use of Bronze
Ans. (A)
Exp: Town planning, Drainage system and Use of
Bronze are the features of Indus Valley
Civilization. Use of Iron was not the feature of
this.
192. Who started Shudhi Movement?
(A) Dayananda Saraswathy
(B) Sri Aurobindo
(C) Swami Vivekananda
(D) Yashoda Bhai
Ans. (A)
Exp: The socio-political movement, derived from
ancient rite of shuddhikaran, or purification was
started by the Arya Samaj, and its founder
Swami Dayanand Saraswati and his followers
like Swami Shraddhanand, who also worked on
the Sangathan consolidation aspect of Hinduism,
in North India
193. What literary period is the beat generation
aligned with?
(A) Postmodernism (B) Naturalism
(C) Modernism (D) Realism
Ans. (A)
Exp: The Beat Generation was a literary movement
during the late 1940’s and the 1950’s. The
movement was started by a group of authors who
explored American culture and politics in the
works during the post-war era. It was aligned
with the postmodern movement
194. Who attended all the three-round table
conferences?
(A) M K Gandhi (B) M M Malviya
(C) B R Ambedkar (D) Annie Besant
Ans. (C)
Exp: B.R. Ambedkar and Tej Bahadur Sapru took part
in all the three round table conferences.
Mahatma Gandhi took part in Second Round
Table Conference.
195. Which among the following is the resting
place of Morarji Desai?
(A) Abhay Ghat (B) Ekta Sthal
(C) Shakti Sthal (D) Vijay Ghat
Ans. (A)
Exp: Morarji Desai was the Prime Minister of India
who led the country’s first non-Congress
government and Abhay Ghat is resting place of
Morarji Desai.
196. Which of the following cities is not situated on
the river bank?
(A) Agra (B) Patna
(C) Bhopal (D) Kolkata
Ans. (C)
Exp: Agra – Yamuna River
Patna – Ganga River
Kolkata – Hugli River
197. The planet is closest to the Sun-
(A) Earth (B) Mars
(C) Mercury (D) Venus
Ans. (C)
Exp: Mercury is the closest planet to the Sun. And
then Venus is the second closest planet to the
Sun, and Earth is the third closest planet to the
Sun.
198. What is the international date line-
(A) 180-degree longitude line
(B) 0 degrees longitude line
(C) The part of 0 degrees to 180 degrees east
longitude
(D) The part of 0 degrees to 180 degrees west
longitude
Ans. (B)
Exp: The International Date Line is located halfway
around the world from the prime meridian (0°
longitude) or about 180° east (or west) of
Greenwich, London, UK, the reference point of
time zones.
199. Which planet is called blue planet –
(A) Sun (B) Earth
(C) Moon (D) Venus
Ans. (B)
Exp: Earth has been called the “Blue Planet” due to
the abundant water on its surface. However,
liquid water is a rare commodity in our solar
system.
200. Aryabhata was-
(A) Astronomer (B) historian
(C) Playwright (D) Archaeologist
Ans. (A)
Exp: Aryabhata I was the first of the major
mathematician-astronomers from the classical
age of Indian mathematics and Indian
astronomy.
201. In which of the following landforms are
‘Mushroom rocks’ found?
(A) Desert (B) Delta
(C) Glacial moraine (D) Sea cave
Ans. (A)
Exp: Mushroom rocks are found in desert land forms.
Explanation: Mushroom rocks are also called as
pedestal rocks or some times rock pedestals.
202. Taklamakan Desert is situated in
(A) Western Asia
(B) Southern fringe of Sahara in Africa
(C) North America
(D) Central Asia
Ans. (D)
Exp: Takla Makan Desert is China’s largest desert,
situated in the middle of the largest Basin, Tarim
in Xinjiang Province.The Taklamakan Desert is
situated in Central Asia.
203. Which of the following are examples of
peneplains?
1. Central Russia 2. Paris Basin
3. Eastern England
4. Upper Mississippi Basin
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 4 only (D) 1, 3 and 4 only
Ans. (A)
Exp: The oldest identifiable peneplain in a region is
known as a primary peneplain An example of a
peneplain is the Sub-Cambrian peneplain in
Central Russia, Paris Basin
204. The oldest oil field in India is
(A) Bombay High, Maharashtra
(B) Ankleshwar, Gujarat
(C) Navagam, Gujarat
(D) Digboi, Assam
Ans. (D)
Exp: Today, though the crude production is not high,
Digboi has the distinction of being India’s oldest
continuously producing oilfield
205. Dalmianagar of Bihar is famous for
(A) Silk (B) Cement
(C) Leather (D) Jute
Ans. (B)
Exp: Shanti Prasad Jain took over Rohtas Industries
Ltd. from his father-in-law, and under his
stewardship, Dalmianagar developed into a
massive industrial town from the 1940s till the
1980s with factories producing sugar, cement,
paper, chemicals, vanaspati, etc.
206. Where is the India’s permanent research station
Dakshin Gangotri?
(A) Great Himalayas (B) Indian Ocean
(C) Antarctica (D) Arabian Sea
Ans. (C)
Exp: South Gangotri was India’s first scientific base
centre located in Antarctica, which was part
of the Indian Antarctic programme
207. Which of the following cities are called the
twin cities?
(A) Delhi and Faridabad
(B) Mumbai and Pune
(C) Hyderabad and Secunderabad
(D) Bangalore and Mysore
Ans. (C)
Exp: Hyderabad and Secunderabad are the “twin cities
of India”.
208. What is the name of southernmost hill ranges
in India?
(A) Nilgiri Hills (B) Annamalai Hills
(C) Nallamalai Hills (D) Cardamom Hills
Ans. (D)
Exp: The Cardamom Hills or Yela Mala are mountain
range of southern India and part of the southern
Western Ghats located in southeast Kerala and
southwest Tamil Nadu in India.
209.Son river originates from which of the following
place?
(A) Amarkantak (B) Gomat Tal
(C) Mapchachungo (D) Gomukh
Ans. (A)
Exp: Son River originates near Amarkantak in
Madhya Pradesh (Madhya Prades) and joins the
Ganga River, after a course of 784 km west of
Patna. The Son is the second largest southern
tributary of Ganga River.
210. Which of the following states has the highest
irrigation coverage?
(A) Punjab (B) Karnataka
(C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Uttarakhand
Ans. (A)
Exp: Punjab and Haryana are by far the most
agriculturally productive states in the country
and also with the highest irrigation state in India.
211. The soil which cracks and shrinks most as it
dries is.
(A) Black clay soil (B) Red porous soil
(C) Sandy soil (D) Loamy soil
Ans. (A)
Exp: The soil which cracks and shrinks most as it dries
is Black clay soil
212. Which of following is the only perennial river of
the state, which enters Rajasthan at
Chaurasigarh?
(A) Loni (B) Ghaggar
(C) Hakra (D) Chambal
Ans. (D)
Exp: Chambal and Luni are the two main rivers of
Rajasthan. Chambal is the only perennial river of
the state, which enters Rajasthan at
Chaurasigarh, after originating from the northern
slopes of the Vindhya Range. This river flows
along the eastern border between Rajasthan and
Madhya Pradesh.
213. Which of the following himalayan mountain
range where the Kashmir Valley lies?
(A) Siwalik and Pir Panjal
(B) Pir Panjal and Dhauladhar
(C) Zaskar and Pir Panjal
(D) Dhauladhar and Zaskar
Ans. (C)
Exp: The Kashmir Valley, also known as the Vale of
Kashmir, is an intermontane valley in the portion
of the Kashmir region administered by India.
The valley is bounded on the southwest by the
Pir Panjal Range and on the northeast by the
main Himalayas range.
214. Which of the following river systems form the
delta?
(A) Godavari, Narmada, Mahanadi
(B) Narmada, Kaveri, Mahanadi
(C) Godavari, Kaveri, Mahanadi
(D) Narmada, Krishna, Kaveri
Ans. (C)
Exp: Most of the major rivers of the Indian
subcontinent such as the Indus, Ganga and
Brahmaputra, Kaveri, Krishna, Godavari and
Mahanadi flow eastwards and empties into the
Bay of Bengal after forming deltas. The west
flowing rivers of the Peninsular India make
estuaries and the east flowing rivers make deltas.
215. The Asia’s largest fresh water lake “Wular
lake” is located in which state?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Uttar Pradsh
(C) Punjab
(D) Jammu and Kashmir
Ans. (D)
Exp: Wular Lake (also spelt Wullar) is one of the
largest fresh water lakes in Asia. It is sited in
Bandipora district in Jammu and Kashmir.
216. Indian Constitution contains how many Parts?
(A) Twelve Parts
(B) Twenty-two Parts
(C) Eight Parts
(D) Twenty-Four Parts
Ans. (B)
Exp: The world’s longest written constitution had 395
articles in 22 parts and 8 schedules at the time of
commencement. Now the Constitution of India
has 4 articles in 25 parts and 12 schedules.
217. Money bill can be introduced first in which
house of Parliament?
(A) Only in Lok Sabha
(B) Only in Rajya Sabha
(C) Both in Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(D) Either in Lok Sabha or in Rajya Sabha
Ans. (A)
Exp: Money Bills can be introduced only in Lok
Sabha Money bills passed by the Lok Sabha are
sent to the Rajya Sabha
218. By which constitution amendment the elected
members of Delhi and Pondicherry Legislatures
were included in the President’s Electoral
College?
(A) 42nd Constitution Amendments Act, 1976.
(B) 70th Constitution Amendments Act, 1992.
(C) 86th Constitution Amendment Act, 2002.
(D) 124th Constitution Amendments Act, 2019.
Ans. (B)
Exp: The Constitution (Seventeenth Amendment)
Act, 1992. Explanation. -In this article and in
article 55, “State” includes the National Capital
Territory of Delhi and the Union territory of
Pondicherry.
219. Which among the following is also known as
chief law officer of Government of India?
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Comptroller and Auditor General
(C) Attorney General of India
(D) Judge of Supreme Court of India
Ans. (C)
Exp: The Attorney General of India is the highest law
officer of the country. He is responsible for
assisting the government in all its legal matters.
220. Lakshadweep’s High Court is located in which
state of India?
(A) Tamil Nadu (B) Kerala
(C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Karnataka
Ans. (B)
Exp: The High Court of Kerala is the high court in the
Indian state of Kerala and in the Union Territory
of Lakshadweep. It is located in Kochi.
221. In which article of Indian Constitution there is a
specific provision related to different states?
(A) Article-369 (B) Article -370
(C) Article -371 (D) Article -372
Ans. (C)
Exp: Most of the states for which special provisions
have been made under Article 371 are of and
special status is focused on providing protection
to their democratic culture.
222. How many parts were there in the original Indian
constitution?
(A) 21 (B) 22
(C) 23 (D) 24
Ans. (B)
Exp: The Indian constitution is the world’s longest for
a sovereign nation. At its enactment, it had 395
articles in 22 parts and 8 schedules.
22 Parts of Indian Constitution are listed below:
I.- The Union and States, their borders
II – Citizenship
III – Fundamental Rights
IV– Directive Principles of State policy
IV (A) – Fundamental duties.
V – The Union Government
VI – The State Governments
VII – (Deleted by 7th Amendment)
VIII- The Union Territories
IX– The Panchayats
IX A– The Municipalities
IX B– The Co-operative Societies
X – The Scheduled and Tribal areas
XI – Relations between the Union and States
XII – Finance, Property, Contracts, and Suits
XIII– Trade, Commerce, and Intercourse within
the territory of India
XIV – Services under the Union and States
XIV A– Tribunals
XV – Elections
XVI – Special provisions relating to certain
classes
XVII – Official language
XVIII – Emergency provisions
XIX – Miscellaneous
XX – Amendment of the Constitution
XXI – Temporary, transitional and Special
provisions
XXII – Short Title and Commencement
223. In which Amendment act Sindhi language was
included as 15th regional language in the Eight
Schedule?
(A) 1st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956
(B) 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956
(C) 15th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1963
(D) 21st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1967
Ans. (D)
Exp: The 21th Amendment of the Constitution of
India, officially known as The Constitution (21th
Amendment) Act, 1967, amended the Eighth
Schedule to the Constitution so as to include
Sindhi as one of the languages, thereby raising
the total number of languages listed in the
schedule to fifteen.
224. In which part did the provision of the formation
of Gram Panchayat?
(A) Part -4 (B) Part -3
(C) Part -2 (D) Part -5
Ans. (A)
Exp: These provisions, contained in Part IV (Article
36–51) of the Constitution of India, are not
enforceable by any court, but the principles laid
down therein are considered in the governance
of the country. Parts 3 and 4 of the Indian
constitution together are called the soul and
consciousness of the constitution. These
elements contain the real elements of the
constitution and the philosophy of social justice.
Article 40 of the Constitution which enshrines
one of the Directive Principles of State Policy
lays down that the State shall take steps to
organise village panchayats and endow them
with such powers and authority as may be
necessary to enable them to function as units of
self-government.
225. What is the main function of the Nagar
Panchayat?
(A) Public road
(B) Cleaning of places and drains
(C) Illumination of lights
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)
Exp: Services and facilities required for the urban
area. cleanliness program. Providing street
lighting and street in wards and main streets of
the city.
226. Election Commissioner of India is related to
which part of the constitution?
(A) Part XV (B) Part XVII
(C) Part XIV (D) Part XVI
Ans. (A)
Exp: Part XV of the Constitution of India consists of
Articles on Elections. Article 324 of the
Constitution provides that the power of
superintendence, direction and control of
elections to parliament, state legislatures, the
office of president of India and the office of vicepresident
of India shall be vested in the election
commission.
227. According to Article 157, which of the following
qualifications is not mandatory in a person to be
appointed to the post of Governor?
(A) He has completed the age of 35 years.
(B) He should not hold a post of profit in the
State Government or Central Government or any
public undertaking under the control of these
States.
(C) He should be eligible to be elected a member
of the State Legislative Assembly.
(D) He is eligible to be elected a member of the
State Legislative Council.
Ans. (D)
Exp: According to Article 157, the following
qualifications are mandatory for a person to be
appointed as Governor.
1. He should be a citizen of India.
2. He has completed the age of 35 years.
3. He should not hold a post of profit in the State
Government or Central Government or any
public undertaking under the control of these
States.
4. He should be eligible to be elected a member
of the State Legislative Assembly.
5. He has not been declared insane or insolvent.
228. By which constitutional amendment, the words
“secular” and “socialist” were added to the
preamble and the words “and integrity” were
added to the unity of the state?
(A) 40th (B) 44th
(C) 42th (D) 52th
Ans. (C)
Exp: 42nd Amendment (1976): It brought about major
changes in the constitution, the main of which
were the following.
Ø The words ‘socialist’, ‘secular’ and ‘unity and
integrity’ were added to the Preamble of the
Constitution.
Ø All the Directive Principles were ensured
supremacy over fundamental rights.
Ø Under this, ten fundamental duties were added
to the Constitution under Article 51 (a), (Partiva).
229. In the State Legislative Assembly, with which
the money bill is introduced?
(A) Speaker of the Assembly
(B) Governor
(C) State finance minister
(D) Chief Minister of the state
Ans. (B)
Exp: A money bill is introduced first only in the
Vidhan Sabha. The money bill includes
authorisation of the expenditure to be incurred
by the government, imposition or abolition of
taxes, borrowing, etc. The bill is introduced by a
Minister on the recommendations of the
Governor.
230. Can the Constitution Amendment Bill be
introduced in any state legislature?
(A) Yes
(B) No
(C) Only when related to the state
(D) With the permission of the President
Ans. (B)
Exp: A constitution amendment bill can be introduced
in any house of the parliament. A bill for the
purpose of amendment of constitution can not be
introduced in any state legislature. The
Ordinance making power of the President can
NOT be used to amend the Constitution.
231. The salary of the Judge of High Court are
charged from which among the following:
(A) Consolidated Fund of India
(B) Consolidated Fund of the State
(C) Contingency Fund of India
(D) All of the above
Ans. (A)
Exp: The salaries and allowances of the judges of a
high court are charged on the consolidated fund
of the state. The pension of a high court judge is
charged on the consolidated fund of India and
not the state.
232. Which of the following is the right to appoint and
discharged from office to Chief Election
Commissioner?
(A) Prime minister (B) President
(C) Parliament (D) Vice President
Ans. (C)
Exp: Chief Election Commissioner of India can be
removed from his office by the Parliament with
a two-thirds majority in both the Lok Sabha and
the Rajya Sabha on the grounds of proved
misbehavior or incapacity.
233. Provision of financial Emergency in India
describe in which part of constitution?
(A) Part -18 (B) Part -17
(C) Part -15 (D) Part -16
Ans. (A)
Exp: Emergency provisions have been taken from the
Government of India Act-1935. Part XVIII of
the Indian Constitution lays down the provisions
relating to emergency from Articles 352 to 360.
Emergency provisions in the Indian Constitution
are divided into three parts – National
Emergency (Article-352), Failure of
Constitutional Mechanism in States / President’s
Rule (Article-356) and Financial Emergency
(Article-360).
234. All bills passed by the parliament can became
laws only after receiving the assent of the
president according to which article.
(A) Article -112 (B) Article -111
(C) Article -117 (D) Article -118
Ans. (B)
Exp: Article 111 in India’s Constitution provides for
assent generally: “When a Bill has been passed
by the Houses of Parliament, it shall be presented
to the President, and the President shall declare
either that he assents to the Bill, or that he
withholds assent therefrom”.
235.Who elected the Chairman of the Drafting
Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
(A) C. Rajagopalachari
(B) Rajendra Prashad
(C) B. R. Ambedkar
(D) Jawahar lal Neharu
Ans. (C)
Exp: The Drafting Committee had seven members:
Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar, N. Gopalaswami,
B.R. Ambedkar, K.M Munshi, Mohammad
Saadulla, B.L. Mitter and D.P. Khaitan. At its
first meeting on 30th August 1947, the Drafting
Committee elected B.R Ambedkar as its
Chairman.
236. To address consumer queries on digital
payments, which toll-free helpline number did
the Government of India launch in 2017?
(A) 109 (B) 911
(C) 14444 (D) 18888
Ans. (C)
Exp: 14444 Toll-Free Helpline for Digital Payments
Launched. The Government of India, in
collaboration with telecom and IT industry, has
launched a toll-free helpline – 14444 – to address
consumer queries on digital payments on 5th Jan
2017.
237. Which of the following nations and India
upgraded their existing Comprehensive
Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) in
2018?
(A) Indonesia (B) South Korea
(C) Iceland (D) Taiwan
Ans. (B)
Exp: India has decided to upgrade its existing trade
pact with South Korea, despite the domestic
industry expressing concerns over the agreement
disproportionately favouring that country
238. Which Committee recommended
discontinuance of a separate Railway Budget?
(A) Committee headed by Shri Arvind
Panagariya
(B) Committee headed by Shri Suresh Prabhu
(C) Committee headed by Shri Arvind
Subramanian
(D) Committee headed by Shri Bibek Debroy
Ans. (D)
Exp: Bibek Debroy Committee
239. Which of the following is expected to be boosted
by Project ‘Chaman’?
(A) Fisheries (B) Crop Insurance
(C) Soil Research (D) Horticulture
Ans. (D)
Exp: Union Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
Minister, Shri Radha Mohan Singh said that in
order to provide strategic development to the
horticulture sector, so as to increase farmers
income, a pioneer project called CHAMAN, has
been launched three years back by the
Government.
240.NITI Aayog has been formed to replace which
of the following institution?
(A) Planning Commission
(B) Finance Commission
(C) DRDO
(D) ISROAns. (A)
Exp: In accordance with a key announcement made by
Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Independence
Day, the Union Government today established
NITI Aayog (National Institution for
Transforming India), as replacement for the
Planning Commission.
241. When was the first economic census done in
India by Central Statistical Organization?
(A) 1942 (B) 1977
(C) 1991 (D) 2013
Ans. (B)
Exp: In 1976, Government of India launched a plan
scheme called Economic Census and Surveys. In
1977 Central Statistical Organisation conducted
First economic census in collaboration with the
Directorate of Economics & Statistics (DES) in
the States/Union Territories.
242. The biggest feature of the ____________
economy is that private and public sector work
together in this kind of economy?
(A) Mixed (B) Socialist
(C) Capitalist (D) All of the above
Ans. (D)
Exp: Advantages of a Mixed Economic System
Allows capitalism and socialism to coexist: A
mixed economic system allows capitalism and
socialism to coexist and function by segregating
the roles of the government and the private
sector.
243. By which constitution amendment act
Economically Weaker Sections among General
Category candidates in government jobs and
educational institutions get 10% reservation?
(A) 103rd Constitution Amendment Act, 2019
(B) 130th Constitution Amendment Act, 2019
(C) 113th Constitution Amendment Act, 2019
(D) 132th Constitution Amendment Act, 2019
Ans. (A)
Exp: 103 constitution amendment act Economically
Weaker Sections among General Category
candidates in government jobs and educational
institutions get 10% reservation.
244. The save Public sector banks day was celebrated
on which date in India?
(A) 15 July (B) 19 July
(C) 24 July (D) 29 July
Ans. (B)
Exp: The United Forum of Bank Unions has decided
to observe July 19, the 48th anniversary of
nationalisation of major banks, as ‘Save public
sector banks’ day.
245. Commercial paper is source of credit for which
one of the following-
(A) Corporate Industry (B) Small Industry
(C) Commercial Bank (D) Foreign Bank
Ans. (A)
Exp: Commercial paper is a common form of
unsecured, short-term debt issued by a corporate
industry. Commercial paper is typically issued
for the financing of payroll, accounts payable,
inventories, and meeting other short-term
liabilities.
246. Which of the following banks has the largest
branch in India?
(A) Hong Kong and Shanghai Banking
Corporation.
(B) City Bank.
(C) Standard chartered bank.
(D) Deutsche Bank.
Ans. (B)
Exp: Standard Chartered is the largest on that count
with 100 branches, while Citibank is India’s third
largest foreign bank in terms of branches, with
45 operational.
247. International AIDS day is celebrated on?
(A) 1st December (B) 1st November
(C) 11th December (D) 11th November
Ans. (A)
Exp: 1988. World AIDS Day, designated on 1
December every year since 1988, is an
international day dedicated to raising awareness
of the AIDS pandemic caused by the spread of
HIV infection and mourning those who have
died of the disease
248. Name the 29th state of India formed in 2014.
(A) Uttarakhand (B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Telangana (D) Odisha
Ans. (C)
Exp: The bill receives the assent of the President and
published in the gazette on 1 March 2014. On 4
March 2014 the Government of India declares 2
June 2014 the Telangana Formation Day.
Telangana is the 29th state of the Union of India
with Hyderabad as its capital.
249. What is the currency of China?
(A) Dinar (B) Yuan Renminbi
(C) Dollar (D) Pound
Ans. (B)
Exp: The Chinese Yuan, also known as Renminbi, is
used throughout in mainland China, while in
Hong Kong and Macau, the Hong Kong dollar
and pataca are respectively used. “Renminbi,”
which translates to “people’s money,” is the
official currency of China.
250. The new symbol of Indian rupee is a blend of
(A) Persian R and Roman R
(B) Roman R and Pound
(C) Devanagiri Ra and Dollar
(D) Devanagiri Ra and Roman R
Ans. (D)
Exp: The Indian rupee will soon have a unique symbol
— a blend of the Devanagri ‘Ra’ and Roman ‘R’ –
– joining elite currencies like the US dollar, euro,
British pound and Japanese yen in having a
distinct identity.
251. According to the World Steel Association report,
which is the largest producer of crude steel.
(A) India (B) America
(C) China (D) Japan
Ans. (C)
Exp: India has world’s second largest steel producing
country, while China is the largest producer of
crude steel accounting for more than 51 per cent
of production, according to World Steel
Association (world steel).
252. World Steel Association is a non-profit
organization; its headquarters is located in-
(A) Beijing (B) New Delhi
(C) New York (D) Brussels
Ans. (D)
Exp: Brussels, Belgium Members represent around
85% of global steel production. It is a non-profit
organisation with its headquarters in Brussels,
Belgium and a second office in Beijing, China,
whose purpose is to promote steel and the steel
industry to customers, the industry, media and
the general public.
253. The Union Cabinet has approved the
establishment of the GST Appellate Tribunal,
which will act as the first shared forum to settle
disputes between-
(A) Central and state
(B) Ministry of Finance and Home Affairs
(C) Both
(D) None
Ans. (D)
Exp: Goods and Services Tax Appellate Tribunal is
the forum of second appeal in GST laws and the
first common forum of dispute resolution
between Centre and States. The appeals against
the orders in first appeals issued by the Appellate
Authorities under the Central and State GST
Acts lie before the GST Appellate Tribunal,
which is common under the Central as well as
State GST Acts.
254. The Bloomberg Innovation Index is India’s place
in the list of the most innovative countries in
2019?
(A) 45th (B) 49th
(C) 52nd (D) 54th
Ans. (C)
Exp: India improved its ranking in the global
innovation index by five places to 52nd in 2019
from 57th position last year, according to a
report released. Commerce and Industry
Minister Piyush Goyal released the Global
Innovation Index.
255. Workers from unorganized sector will earn ___
rupees after the age of 60 years under the scheme
of PM shramyogi maan dhan yojana?
(A) 2000 (B) 3000
(C) 5000 (D) 6000
Ans. (B)
Exp: Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-Dhan
(PMSYM) schem covering unorganised sector
workers of age between 18 and 40 years, making
them eligible for a minimum monthly pension of
Rs 3,000 after the age of 60 in lieu of
contributions made under the scheme
256. The temperature of the stars can be estimated by.
(A) Wien’s displacement law
(B) Rayleigh-Jeans law
(C) Faraday’s law
(D) Coulomb’s law
Ans. (B)
Exp: Rayleigh-Jeans law -Apart from the Sun, the
temperature of a star can be approximated by
considering the energy emitted from it as a black
ray vi ray
257. In electric supply lines in India, which parameter
is kept constant?
(A) Voltage (B) Current
(C) Frequency (D) Power
Ans. (C)
Exp: The frequency of a repeated event (a repeated
event) that occurs in unit time is called the
frequency of that event
258. Sun appears reddish during the rising and setting
time, because.
(A) The atmosphere absorbs short wavelength
more than long wavelengths.
(B) Red light is emitted in a huge amount by it
(C) The atmosphere absorbs long wavelength
more than short wavelengths.
(D) Light of shorter wavelengths are scattered to
a greater extent than the longer wavelengths by
the atmosphere.
And. (D)
Exp: The light from the Sun travels through Earth’s
atmosphere it undergoes scattering before it
reaches us. The extent of scattering is not
uniform for all colours. Light of shorter
wavelengths, such as violet, blue, green and
yellow undergoes greater scattering than those of
longer wavelengths, such as orange and red.
259. In RADAR we use-
(A) Ultrasonic waves
(B) Infra sonic waves
(C) Radio waves
(D) Audible waves
Ans. (C)
Exp: Radar (radar) is a device with the help of radio
waves to detect distant objects and to determine
their position, ie direction and distance.
260. If the distance between two objects is doubled,
the force of attraction between them will,
(A) Become ¼ times (B) Become 2 times
(C) Become 1/8 times (D) Remains same
Ans. (A)
Exp: If the distance between two objects is doubled,
the force of attraction between them will 1/4.
261. A solar panel is in kept black surface so that it
absorbs more _____.
(A) Heat (B) Water
(C) Air (D) Oxygen
Ans. (A)
Exp: Solar panels are blue due to the type of silicon
(polycrystalline) that is used for a certain set of
solar panels. … Black solar panels
(monocrystalline) are often more efficient as
black surfaces more naturally absorb light.
262. The Laser is a beam of radiations which are-
(A) Non-coherent and non-monochromatic
(B) Coherent and non-monochromatic
(C) Non-coherent and monochromatic
(D) Coherent and monochromatic
Ans. (D)
Exp: The Laser is a beam of radiations which are
Coherent and monochromatic
263. Why is used earthing in the electrical
equipment?
(A) To avoid any kind of damage
(B) To prevent from Current
(C) To stop short circuit
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)
Exp: Earthing is used to protect you from an electric
shock. It does this by providing a path (a
protective conductor) for a fault current to flow
to earth. It also causes the protective device
(either a circuit-breaker or fuse) to switch off the
electric current to the circuit that has the fault
264. When pressing the two pieces of ice together, the
pieces stick together, because-
(A) With high pressure, the melting point of the
ice decreases.
(B) With Higher pressure the melting point of ice
increases.
(C) If the pressure is high, the melting point of
the ice decreases first and then increases.
(D) There is no connection between pressure and
melting point.
Ans. (A)
Exp: When the two ice cubes are pressed together,
melting point of ice is lowered, so they melt to
form a thin layer of water (between them).
265. What is a Noisy Intermediate Scale Quantum
(NISQ) technology?
(A) A technology where a computer injects a
noise in large scale for running algorithms for
quantitative comparison
(B) A technology of the future where quantum
computers with 50 to 100 qubits that perform
tasks exceeding those of today’s digital
computers
(C) A technology in use in National Institute of
Standard and Quality computer
(D) A technology for suppressing
electromagnetic interference from all sources
Ans. (B)
Exp: It’s an acronym which means Noisy Intermediate
Scale Quantum. Intermediate scale indicates that
we’re talking about devices that are large
enough, perhaps 50 qubits or more is enough,
that we can’t by brute force simulate the quantum
system using our most powerful existing digital
computers.
266. Kinetics is the study of-
(A) The rate of chemical reaction
(B) How fast the reactions go
(C) The mechanisms and paths of the molecules
take injoining from one reactant to products
(D) All of these are correct
Ans. (A)
Exp: Chemical kinetics. Chemical kinetics, also
known as reaction kinetics, is the branch of
physical chemistry that is concerned with
understanding the rates of chemical reactions.
267. J. J. Thomson’s proposed model of action is
generally called ………………. model.
(A) Cream and cake
(B) Plum and pudding
(C) Plum and cake
(D) Cream and pudding
Ans. (B)
Exp: Thomson in 1904 and is known as the Plum
pudding model or the Thomson model of the
atom.
268. When a motor boat in a sea travels faster than
sound then waves just like shock- waves are
produced on the surface of water. These waves
are called –
(A) Bow Waves
(B) Constructive waves
(C) Destructive waves
(D) All of the above
Ans. (A)
Exp: When a motor boat in a sea travels faster than
sound, then waves just like shock-waves are
produced on the surface of water. These waves
are called bow waves.
269. If Mach number is greater than 1 then the body
(source) is said to be moving with –
(A) Hypersonic (B) Subsonic
(C) Supersonic (D) None of these
Ans. (C)
Exp: If Mach number is greater than 1 then the body
(source) is said to be Supersonic
270. If Mach number is greater than 5 then the body
(source) is said to be moving with –
(A) Hypersonic (B) Subsonic
(C) Supersonic (D) None of these
Ans. (A)
Exp: If Mach number is greater than 5 then the body
(source) is said to be Hypersonic.
271. A hot substance loses heat to its surroundings in
the form of heat radiation. The rate of loss of heat
depends on the-
(A) Pressure of the surroundings
(B) Temperature of the surroundings
(C) Temperature difference between the
substance and its surroundings
(D) Average volume of the object and its
surroundings
Ans. (B)
Exp: In a cold body to a hot body heat transit of heat
transfer (heat transfer) says. When the
temperature of an object is different from that of
its surroundings or other object,
272. The capacity of a body to do work is known as:
(A) Energy (B) Power
(C) Momentum (D) Strength
Ans. (A)
Energy is the of a physical system to perform
work. Energy exists in several forms such as heat
energy, kinetic or mechanical energy, light
energy, potential energy, electrical energy, or
other forms. Joule is also the SI unit of work.
273. ________ is the transfer of heat due to bulk
movement of molecules within fluids such as
gases and liquids, including molten rock?
(A) Conduction only
(B) Convection only
(C) Radiation
(D) Both conduction and convection
Ans. (B)
Exp: Convection is the heat transfer due to the bulk
movement of molecules within fluids such as
gases and liquids, including molten rock.
274. By the use of photovoltaic cell while converting
solar energy which of the following is produced?
(A) Light energy (B) Electric energy
(C) Chemical energy (D) Heat energy
Ans. (B)
Exp: Photovoltaics are best known as a method for
generating electric power by using solar cells to
convert energy from the sun into a flow of
electrons by the photovoltaic effect.
275. Hydraulic brakes used in automatic vehicles is
direct virtual application of which law?
(A) Pascal’s law
(B) Archemedes’ principle
(C) Charles law
(D) Boyle’s law
Ans. (A)
Exp: Pascal’s law basically states that any pressure
applied to a fluid inside a closed system will
transmit that pressure equally in all directions
throughout the fluid. This law is the basic
principle that causes hydraulic power in heavy
construction machines to work.
276. Such physical state of the substance which has
definite volume and definite size is called-
(A) Solid (B) Liquid
(C) Gas (D) None of the above
Ans. (A)
Exp: A solid has definite volume and shape, a liquid
has a definite volume but no definite shape, and
a gas has neither a definite volume nor shape.
277. The process of converting a liquid into its vapour
by heating and the subsequent condensation of
the vapour back into the original liquid is called-
(A) Distillation (B) Sedimentation
(C) Decantation (D) Diffusion
Ans. (A)
Exp: Distillation, process involving the conversion of
a liquid into vapour that is subsequently
condensed back to liquid form. It is exemplified
at its simplest when steam from a kettle becomes
deposited as drops of distilled water on a cold
surface.
278. Which of the following metal (shown by its
symbol) is generally used for making filaments
of bulb?
(A) Cu (B) Pb
(C) W (D) Ag
Ans. (C)
Exp: Tungsten (W) metal is generally used for making
filaments of bulb.
279. Which amongst the following is not a Cation?
(A) Potassium ion (B) Sodium ion
(C) Hydrogen ion (D) Sulphate ion
Ans. (D)
Exp: The sulfate or sulphate ion is a polyatomic anion
with the empirical formula SO²⁻ ₄.
280. Process of gaining electrons is known as ___.
(A) Reduction
(B) Oxidation
(C) Both oxidation and reduction
(D) None of the above
Ans. (A)
Exp: Oxidation is the loss of electrons during a
reaction by a molecule, atom or ion. Oxidation
occurs when the oxidation state of a molecule,
atom or ion is increased. The opposite process is
called reduction, which occurs when there is a
gain of electrons or the oxidation state of an
atom, molecule, or ion decrease.
281. Which among the following acid is also known
as ‘Muriatic Acid’?
(A) Sulfurous Acid (B) Oxalic Acid
(C) Formic Acid (D) Hydrochloric acid
Ans. (D)
Exp: Muriatic acid is one of the names for
hydrochloric acid, a corrosive strong acid. It is
also known as spirits of salt or acidum salis.
“Muriatic” means “pertaining to brine or salt”.
The chemical formula for muriatic acid is HCl.
282. What is a Vermicomposting?
(A) Organic fertilizer
(B) Inorganic fertilizer
(C) Toxic Substance
(D) Type of soil
Ans. (A)
Exp: Containing water-soluble nutrients,
vermicompost is a nutrient-rich organic fertilizer
and soil conditioner in a form that is relatively
easy for plants to absorb. Worm castings are
sometimes used as an organic fertilizer.
283. Which one of the following gas is not found in
the atmosphere?
(A) Argon (B) Krypton
(C) Radon (D) Xenon
Ans. (C)
Exp: Radon gas is not naturally occurring in
atmosphere. Radon is produced by the
radioactive decay of radium-226, which is found
in uranium ores. It is radioactive with a half-life
of 3.8 days.
284. Which one of the following is not a mixture?
(A) Graphite (B) Glass
(C) Brass (D) SteelAns. (A)
Exp: Graphite is a pure element which cannot split
into its constituent particles. It is an isotope of
carbon.
285. The metal compound commonly found in
Sindhoor or kumkum is based on-
(A) Tin (B) Lead
(C) Copper (D) Zinc
Ans. (B)
Exp: Pb3O4 commonly known as red lead is used as
sindhoor.
286. An ideal fuel should have-
(A) High calorific value
(B) Low ignition temperature
(C) Regulated and controlled
(D) All of the above
Ans. (C)
Exp: Ideal fuel is a fuel which on burning doesn’t emit
harmful gases it is easy to transport and store it
is also of very low cost and gives more heat per
weight,It also have a high calorific value.It
should have low ignition temp.
287. The number of electrons presents in H+ is __.
(A) Zero (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
Ans. (A)
Exp: The number of electrons presents in H+ is it has
zero electron.
288. Which of the following is a radioactive metal?
(A) Iodine (B) Radium
(C) Chromium (D) Lithium
Ans. (B)
Exp: Radium is a chemical element with the symbol
Ra and atomic number 88. All isotopes of
radium are highly radioactive.
289. The human body is made up of several chemical
elements; the element present in the highest
proportion (65%) in the Human body is
_________.
(A) Carbon (B) Hydrogen
(C) Oxygen (D) Nitrogen
Ans. (C)
Exp: The human body is made up of several chemical
elements; the element present in the highest
proportion (65%) in the body is Oxygen.
290. Which of the following is the ore of the
Chromium?
(A) Chromite (B) Pyrolusite
(C) Celomeleine (D) All of the above
Ans. (A)
Exp: Chromite is important because it is the only ore
of chromium, an essential element for a wide
variety of metal, chemical, and manufactured
products.
291. What is the process of conversion from solid to
gas is known as?
(A) Evaporation (B) Solidification
(C) Sublimation (D) Condensation
Ans. (C)
Exp: The process is called sublimation. Sublimation is
the transition of a substance directly from the
solid to the gas phase without passing through
the intermediate liquid phase. Sublimation is an
endothermic phase transition that occurs at
temperatures and pressures below a substance’s
triple point in its phase diagram.
292. Who proposed first atomic theory?
(A) E. Rutherford (B) De Broglie
(C) John Dalton (D) D.I. Mendeleef
Ans. (C)
Exp: John Dalton created the very first atomic theory.
Dalton viewed atoms as tiny, solid balls.
293. Which of the following is the best fireextinguisher?
(A) Water (B) Oxygen
(C) Carbon –dioxide (D) Soil
Ans. (C)
Exp: The carbon dioxide considered the best fire
extinguisher to put off fires caused by burning of
inflammable liquids such as petrol or oil because
carbon dioxide stops the influence of oxygen
because it decreases the oxygen present in that
fire which leads to the fallout of fire.
294. Which among the following substances is most
suitable for making Compact Discs?
(A) PVC (B) Polyethylene
(C) Polyamides (D) Polycarbonates
Ans. (D)
Exp: Polycarbonates is most suitable for making
Compact Discs.
295. What is the common name of analgesic and
antipyretic drug acetylsalicylic acid?
(A) Paracetamol (B) Aspirin
(C) Wintergreen (D) Trazodone
Ans. (B)
Exp: Aspirin, also known as acetylsalicylic acid
(ASA), is a medication used to reduce pain,
fever, or inflammation.
296. Digestive gland of prawn is-
(A) Hepatopancreas (B) Liver
(C) Thyroid (D) Pancreas
Ans. (A)
Exp: Hepatopancreas is only digestive gland present
in prawn.
297. Omasum is absent in-
(A) Goat (B) Cow
(C) Camel (D) Buffalo
Ans. (C)
Exp: Camels have a three-chambered stomach,
lacking the separation of omasum and
abomasum.
298. Acidity in the stomach involves-
(A) A headache
(B) Stomach aches
(C) Asthma
(D) Due to Hormonal deficiency
Ans. (B)
Exp: The highly acidic environment in the stomach
causes proteins from food to lose their
characteristic folded structure.
299. Biological names are generally derived from
which language?
(A) French (B) Latin
(C) Mexican (D) German
Ans. (B)
Exp: Biological names are generally derived from
Latin language.
300. What Does Stand For DNA?
(A) Double nitrogen argon
(B) Dioxide nickel acid
(C) Deoxyribonucleic acid
(D) Deoxy nuclides acid
Ans. (C)
Exp: Dna’s full form is DEOXYRIBO NUCLEIC
ACID. We also know DNA as chromosomes. A
particle of DNA is made up of four otherelements. These elements are also called
nucleotides.
301. In how many times human will lose their
consciousness if blood will stop flowing to the
brain?
(A) 2 sec (B) 5 sec
(C) 20 sec (D) 5 min
Ans. (B)
Exp: In 5 secon human will lose their consciousness if
blood will stop flowing to the brain.
302.Presence of which among the following salts in
water causes “Blue Baby Syndrome”?
(A) Sulphates (B) Chlorides
(C) Carbonates (D) Nitrates
Ans. (D)
Exp: Blue Baby Syndrome is caused due to
contamination nitrate contamination in ground
water.
303. What is the reason that person of blood group O
can be given blood to all other blood groups?
(A) There are no antigens in it
(B) There is only one antigen in it.
(C) There are no antibodies in it
(D) It contains both antibody and antigen.
Ans. (A)
Exp: Blood group O individuals do not have either A
or B antigens on the surface of their RBCs, and
their blood serum contains IgM anti-A and anti-
B antibodies. Therefore, a group O individual
can receive blood only from a group O
individual, but can donate blood to individuals
of any ABO blood group (i.e., A, B, O or AB).
304. At the time of diastole condition-
(A) Blood goes out of the heart.
(B) The blood enters the ventricle.
(C) Blood arrives at the heart.
(D) Blood is out of the atrium.
Ans. (C)
Exp: Diastole and systole are two phases of the
cardiac cycle. They occur as the heart beats,
pumping blood through a system of blood
vessels that carry blood to every part of the body.
Systole occurs when the heart contracts to pump
blood out, and diastole occurs when the heart
relaxes after contraction.
305. Which action of the human body is similar to the
digestive tract?
(A) Glycogen fragmentation in glucose
(B) Fatty acid change in fat
(C) Amino acids changes in Protein
(D) lactose breakdown in glucose and galactose
Ans. (A)
Exp: Glycogen is a branched polymer of glucose that
functions as an energy reserve in mammals.
306. Which of the following is NOT a function of
kidneys?
(A) Regulation of acidity of body fluids
(B) Removal of urine
(C) Produciton of antibiotics
(D) Regulation of blood pressure
Ans. (D)
307. What are Lipids?
(A) Lipids are monosaccharide
(B) Lipids do not provide energy to cells
(C) Fruits are a good source of lipids
(D) Cholesterol and Trans fatty acids are types
of Lipids
Ans. (A)
Exp: Monosaccharide’s are the monomers that make
up carbohydrates. Glucose is an example of a
monosaccharide. Glycerol and fatty acids are the
monomers that make up lipids.
308. Which of the following is known as animal
starch?
(A) Glycogen (B) Cellulose
(C) Glucose (D) Chitin
Ans. (A)
Exp: Glycogen is a multiple branched polysaccharide
of glucose that generates energy which is stored
in in humans body, animals, fungi, and bacteria.
309. The parts of the human body affected by
Pyorrhea are:
(A) Eyes (B) Small intestine
(C) Teeth and gums (D) Large intestine
Ans. (C)
Exp: Periodontitis (pyorrhea) is a severe form of
gingivitis in which the swelling of the gums
extends to the supporting structures of the tooth.
310. Which of the following is thyroid gland
disorder?
(A) Cretinism (B) Myxoedema(C) Grave disease (D) All of the above
Ans. (D)
Exp: Several different disorders can arise when your
thyroid produces too much hormone
(hyperthyroidism) or not enough
(hypothyroidism). Four common disorders of the
thyroid are Cretinism disease, Graves’ disease,
goiter, and Myxoedema.
311. Which of the following is a plant hormone?
(A) Insulin (B) Thyroxin
(C) Estrogen (D) Cytokinin
Ans. (D)
Exp: Cytokinins are a class of plant growth substances
(phytohormones) that promote cell division, or
cytokinesis, in plant roots and shoots.
312. The sugar in R.N.A. is-
(A) Ribose (B) Deoxyribose
(C) Sucrose (D) Lactose
Ans. (B)
Exp: The 5-carbon sugars ribose and deoxyribose are
important components of nucleotides, and are
found in RNA and DNA, respectively.
313. The bacteria were discovered by which of the
following?
(A) H.C. Urey (B) E. Haeckel
(C) A.V. Leeuwenhoek (D) Ivanovsky
Ans. (C)
Exp: In 1676, Anton Van Leeuwenhoek first observed
bacteria through a microscope and called them
“animalcules.”
314. Which is largest organ given below?
(A) Small Intestine (B) Large Intestine
(C) Esophagus (D) All are same
Ans. (A)
Exp: In humans, the small intestine is about 6 meters
or 20 feet long and the large intestine is about 1.5
meters or 5 feet long. It is largest organ of
human Body.
315. Hydrochloric acid is present in which of the
following body part?
(A) Small Intestine (B) Large Intestine
(C) Liver (D) Stomach
Ans. (D)
Exp: Hydrochloric Acid (HCl) is produced by the
stomach and has the job of breaking down
proteins.
