SBI PO Prelims-Sep2023

SBI PO Prelims-Sep2023

English Language

Direction (1-5): Given below are five jumbled sentences and one of the sentences from these
five is not in the same context with another. You have to arrange them in order to make a
paragraph contextually in a sequence by omitting one sentence and answer the given
questions accordingly

A. The mass extinction event happened near the end of the Ediacaran Period some 550 million
years ago and geologists have revealed that it was due to a major decrease in global oxygen
availability.
B. The researchers found that the extinction event included the loss of many different types
of animals
C. The spacecraft had suffered a glitch when only one of the two solar panels on the Cygnus
capsule opened successfully following the predawn liftoff.
D. however, those whose body plans and behaviors indicate that they relied on
significant amounts of oxygen seem to have been hit particularly hard.
E. Geologists have traced the cause of the first known mass extinction event on Earth that
caused the loss of a majority of animals.

1.Which sentence will come in third place after the rearrangement?
(A) C (B) B
(C) A (D) E
(E) None of the above

2.Which of the following sentences will come in second place after the rearrangement?
(A) E

(B) C
(C) B

(D) A
(E) None of the above

3.Which of the following sentences will come in first place after the rearrangement?
(A) A

(B) B
(C) C

(D) D
(E) E

4.Which of the following sentences will come last in the rearrangement?
(A) E

(B) A
(C) B

(D) C
(E) D

5.Which of the following sentences will be omitted after the rearrangement?
(A) E

(B) A
(C) B

(D) D
(E) None of the above

Direction (6-9): Given below are a few questions with two columns, you have to match a part of a
sentence with another column in a way that the sentences formed are contextually and
grammatically correct. You have to mark that option as your answer which gives the correct
pair of sentences. If none of the given options are correct then choose none of the above as
your answer.

(A) Only A-b

(B) only A-b, B-c
(C) Only C-a

(D) Both B and C
(E) None of the above

7.

(A) Only A-c

(B) Only B-a
(C) Only C-b

(D) Both A and B
(E) None of the above

8.

(A) A-a, B-b, C-c

(B) A-b, B-c,
C-a
(C) A-c, B-a, C-b

(D) Only A-a
(E) None of the above

9.

(A) Only A-c

(B) Only B-c
(C) Only C-a

(D) All of the above
(E) None of the above

Direction (10-13): Given below are a few questions
with each ques having some sentences, you
have to choose the sentence which contains
error in it, error can be spelling error,
grammatical error. Choose the correct option
accordingly.
Choose the sentence which contains error.

10.a. A highly contagious disease, measles is
caused by a virus that spreads easily and can be
serious and fatal for children.
b. The virus is from the paramyxovirus family,
which affects the respiratory tract first and than
spreads to other parts of the body through the
blood.
c. Unvaccinated children are at a high risk of
measles complications, including death.
(A) Only a

(B) Only b
(C) Only c

(D) Both B and C
(E) Both A and B

11.a. With the world facing extreme weather
events more frequently and more intensely, the
biggest threat remains to the global food
supply.
b. The World Bank warns that global
agriculture is extremely vulnerable from
climate change.
c. Scientists want to harness the resilient
characteristics of these wild plants to
genetically modify farmed crops so they better
withstand drought or disease.

(A) Only a

(B) Only b
(C) Only c

(D) Both A and B
(E) None of the above

12.a. India’s economic growth has been attributed
to three megatrends – global offshoring,
digitalization and energy transition.
b. The country is also on track to have the
largest stock market by 2030 following its key
investments in technology and energy.
c. India will surpass Japan and Germany to
become the third-largest economy by 2027,
according to an report by Morgan Stanley.
(A) Only a

(B) Only b
(C) Only c

(D) Both B and C
(E) None of the above

13.a. After Twitter, Meta parted ways with close
to 11,000 employees in the globe.
b. Among these employees are many Indians
and other foreign workers of H1B visa who are
now having a tough time.
c. Meta CEO Mark Zuckerberg stirred the
world after he announced firing on13 per cent
of the workforce,
(A) Only a

(B) Only b
(C) Only c

(D) All of the above
(E) None of the above

10.a. A highly contagious disease, measles is
caused by a virus that spreads easily and can be
serious and fatal for children.
b. The virus is from the paramyxovirus family,
which affects the respiratory tract first and than
spreads to other parts of the body through the
blood.
c. Unvaccinated children are at a high risk of
measles complications, including death.
(A) Only a

(B) Only b
(C) Only c

(D) Both B and C
(E) Both A and B

11.a. With the world facing extreme weather
events more frequently and more intensely, the
biggest threat remains to the global food
supply.
b. The World Bank warns that global
agriculture is extremely vulnerable from
climate change.
c. Scientists want to harness the resilient
characteristics of these wild plants to
genetically modify farmed crops so they better
withstand drought or disease.

(A) Only a

(B) Only b
(C) Only c

(D) Both A and B
(E) None of the above

12.a. India’s economic growth has been attributed
to three megatrends – global offshoring,
digitalization and energy transition.
b. The country is also on track to have the
largest stock market by 2030 following its key
investments in technology and energy.
c. India will surpass Japan and Germany to
become the third-largest economy by 2027,
according to an report by Morgan Stanley.
(A) Only a

(B) Only b
(C) Only c

(D) Both B and C
(E) None of the above

13.a. After Twitter, Meta parted ways with close
to 11,000 employees in the globe.
b. Among these employees are many Indians
and other foreign workers of H1B visa who are
now having a tough time.
c. Meta CEO Mark Zuckerberg stirred the
world after he announced firing on13 per cent
of the workforce,
(A) Only a

(B) Only b
(C) Only c

(D) All of the above
(E) None of the above
Direction (14-15): Given below are a few questions
each with highlighted parts in each sentence,
the part of sentence may or may not need
improvement, choose from the option whether
the highlighted part needs any improvement or
not, if not choose No improvement as your
answer.

14.While humans suffer from intense damage due to climate catastrophes, a new study indicate that an majority of the insect population will go extinct under the influence of changing climate.
(A) new study indicates that an majority
(B) new study indicate that a majority
(C) new studies indicates that a majority
(D) new study indicates that a majority
(E) No improvement

15.The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate
Change (IPCC) produces reports roughly

every five years that represent global scientific
consensus on climate change, its causes and its
impact.
(A) produced reports roughly every five years
(B) produces reports roughly every five year
(C) produces reporting roughly every five
years
(D) produces reports rough every five years
(E) No improvement
Direction (16-18): Select the phrase / connector out of
three phrases/ connector given, which can be
used in the beginning of the sentence to form a
single sentence without altering the meaning of
the given statements.

16.I. Richard Tornetta, a drummer, has sued Tesla
CEO Elon Musk.
II. Over a pay package the billionaire received
in 2018.
(a) After being sued……..
(b) Richard Tornetta, a drummer………..
(c) Tesla CEO Elon Musk………
(A) Only a (B) Only b
(C) Only c (D) Both b and c
(E) Both a and b

17.I. Society plays a very crucial role in giving
shape to the individual’s career and future life.
II. It ensures the survival and well-being of the
individual who belongs to different
communities.
(a) For survival and…..
(b) Individuals belonging to different
communities….
(c) Giving shape to the individual’s career….
(A) Only a (B) Only b
(C) Only c (D) Both b and c
(E) Both a and b

18.I. Ahead of Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s
visit to Telangana’s Ramagundam.
II. A poster questioning the ‘unfulfilled
promises’ to the state of Prime Minister
Narendra Modi cropped up in the area.
(a) Ahead of Prime Minister Narendra
Modi’s………
(b) A poster questioning the……….
(c) Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s visit
to……….
(A) Only a

(B) Only b

(C) Only c

(D) Both b and c
(E) Both a and b
Direction (19-25): Below are a few questions related
to the passage. You have to answer those
questions as per the passage given and
choose your answer accordingly.
Ayurveda (Sanskrit: ayu—life; Veda—
knowledge of) or ayurvedic medicine is a form
of alternative medicine, first described by
Agnivesha in his book Agnivesh tantra, which
later revised by the Charaka and presently
known as Charaka Samhita. It is believed that
he lived sometime between 2 BC and 2 AD.
One Kashmiri Pandit Shri Dridhabal re-edited
and re-constructed the Charaka Samhita in the
9th century. Ayurveda, based upon the Indian
philosophical, psychological, conventional and
medicinal understandings, is a traditional health
care system from centuries. Sushruta Samhita is
written by the Sushruta at an unknown date.
Charaka around the beginning of the Common
Era, and based on a holistic approach rooted in
earlier Vedic culture. Its conspicuous use of
the word veda, or knowledge, reveals its role in
early Hinduism and describes its hallowed
place in India. Ayurveda also had a tradition of
surgery in ancient India. Two early texts of
Ayurveda are the Charaka Samhita and the
Sushruta Samhita. The notion that Ayurveda is
of divine origin is shared by many Ayurvedic
personalities. That the knowledge of medical
sciences come from the Gods is a common
belief in other civilizations as well. Thoth and
Apollo were thought to have given medical
practices to the ancient Egyptians and Greeks,
while in India, it is said that Lord Brahma is the
originator of Ayurveda.
Some writers say that Ayurveda is thousands
and thousands of years old. Acharya Vishwa
Nath Dwivedi writes in his book in Bhartiya
Ras Shashtra that in early years, when the
language of communication had no written
script, the Guru [teacher] instructed the the
pupils to memorize the Vedas in the Gurukul,
and this tradition was continued for centuries
until a written script was fully developed and
popularly used. “Atharva Veda” was
memorised in this tradition to save the short

the Vedas were kept alive. Earlier scripts were
written on Taalpatra, Bhojapatra, but they could
not be saved for long. Stone and copper sheets
were also used to preserve information in
written form, but they required a lot of
effort. The Atharva Veda contains many
Ayurveda verses, from which we may
assume that Ayurveda is as old as the
Veda. In “Rig Veda” some maxim, precepts are
written about the direction of keeping good
health. If Atharva veda and Rig Vedas are
thousands and thousands of years old, the life
of Ayurveda should be counted in the same
manner.
precepts / sentences. Through the oral tradition,

19.According to the passage, which of the
following options regarding Ayurveda is
correct?
(A) Ayurveda, based upon the Greek
philosophical, psychological, conventional and
medicinal understandings, is a traditional health
care system from centuries. Sushruta Samhita is
written by the Sushruta at an unknown date.
(B) The Rig Veda contains many Ayurveda
verses, from which we may assume that
Ayurveda is as old as the Veda.
(C) The Atharva Veda contains many
Ayurveda verses, from which we may assume
that Ayurveda is as old as the Veda.
(D) Both A and B
(E) All of the above

20.Which Kashmiri pandit re-edited the Charak
Samhita in the 9th century?
(A) Acharya Vishwa Nath Dwivedi
(B) Pandit Vishwa Nath Dwiwedi
(C) Pandit Alok Nath
(D) Shri Ras nath Dwiwedi
(E) Shri Dridhabal

21.The Atharva Veda contains(A) many Ayurveda
verses (B), from which we may assume that (D)
Ayurveda is as old as the Veda (D).
Find which of the following parts contains
errors in the given sentence?
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
(E) No error

22.Which of the following is the synonym of
CONSPICUOUS?

(A) manifest (B) overt
(C) discernible (D) flagrant
(E) All of the above

23.Which of the following medicinal
understanding, Ayurveda is based on?
(A) Psychological, modern, practical
(B) Psychological, philosophical, modern
(C) Philosophical, conventional, psychological
(D) Philosophical, conventional, Practical
(E) Both A and B

24.Which of the following options is correct
regarding the passage?
(A) The notion that Ayurveda is of divine
origin is shared by none of the Ayurvedic
personalities.
(B) Through the oral tradition, the Vedas were
kept alive. Earlier scripts were written on
Talapatra, Bhojapatra, but they were saved for
long.
(C) Two early texts of Ayurveda are the
Charaka Samhita and the Sushruta Samhita.
(D) Both A and B
(E) All of the above

25.“It is believed that he lived some time between
2 BC and 2 AD”. In this sentence, who is being
referred to as “HE”?
(A) Agnivesh (B) Charak
(C) Sushuruth (D) Acharya Dwiwedi
(E) Shri Dridhbal
Direction (26-30): Given below are a few blanks in a
paragraph with options, you have to choose one
of the options which fits the blank and make the
paragraph grammatically and contextually
correct. If more than one option is correct
choose the option which says both of them and
if none of the given options are correct then
choose none of the above.
The Indian Space Research Organisation (Isro)
has successfully tested the (A) _
developed cryogenic engine that will power its
heaviest rocket, the LVM-3. The Launch
Vehicle Mark-III went through the hot test at an
uprated (B) _ level of 21.8 tonnes for
the first time. Isro said that the objective behind

the hot fire was to test that the engine can
support a payload capability of up to 450 kg
with additional propellant loading. “This
will (C) the LVM3 payload
capability up to 450 kg with additional
propellant loading,” Isro said in a release
following the burn.
The Indian space agency had recently launched
the LVM-3 on a mission to deploy 36 satellites
into Low Earth Orbit as part of a
contract (D) OneWeb and
InSPACE.OneWeb had signed a deal worth
more than Rs 1000 crore for the launch and
another GSLV launch carrying OneWeb
payload is (E) ___ to launch in January of
2023.

26.What will come in blank A?
(A) expatriate (B) adventitious
(C) sartorial (D) Indigenously
(E) None of the above

27.What will come in blank B?
(A) yank (B) wrench
(C) pull (D) thrust
(E) None of the above

28.What will come in blank C?
(A) Dampen (B) Exalt
(C) Enhance (D) Both C and B
(E) None of the above

29.What will come in blank D?
(A) Among (B) Amongst
(C) Both A and B (D) Between
(E) None of the above

30.What will come in blank E?
(A) Unexpected (B) normally
(C) abnormally (D) expected
(E) None of the above

Quantitative Aptitude

Direction (31-35): Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions.

The given pie chart shows the percentage
distribution of the total number of candidates
who qualified for a competitive exam from five
different cities namely Mumbai, Chennai,
Delhi, Bangalore and Kolkata respectively.

Note: In each city, the ratio of the number of

males to females qualified is 2:1. The
difference between the total number of
candidates who qualified from Mumbai and
Chennai is 450.

If the total number of candidates who qualified
from Hyderabad is 4/5th of the total number of
candidates qualified from Chennai and the ratio
of the number of males who qualified from
Chennai to Hyderabad is 6:5, then find the
number of females who qualified from
Hyderabad?
(A) 270 (B) 330
(C) 420 (D) 180
(E) None of these

32.Find the difference between the number of
males who qualified from Kolkata and the
number of females who qualified from
Chennai?
(A) 440 (B) 750
(C) 300 (D) 650
(E) None of these

33.The number of females who qualified from
Mumbai is what percentage of the total number
of candidates who qualified from Delhi?
(A) 70% (B) 25%
(C) 40% (D) 90%
(E) None of these

34.Out of the total number of males who qualified
from Mumbai and Delhi, 75% and 64% of the
males are Undergraduate and the remaining
students are postgraduate. Find the total number
of postgraduate males who qualified from
Mumbai and Delhi?
(A) 660

(B) 450

(C) 520

(D) 740
(E) None of these

35.If the number of candidates who qualified from
Bangalore increased by 25% and the number of
males who qualified from Bangalore increased
by 12.5%, then find the increased number of
females who qualified from Bangalore?
(A) 500

(B) 600
(C) 550

(D) 450
(E) None of these

36.Bala invested Rs.8400 in simple interest at the
rate of 10% per annum for 5 years and he also
invested Rs.7000 in another simple interest at
the rate of R% per annum for 4 years. If the
total interest received by Bala is Rs.9800, then
find the value of R?
(A) 15

(B) 25
(C) 30

(D) 20
(E) None of these

37.In a mixture, the quantity of milk is 66.66% of
the total quantity of the mixture. If 60 liters of
mixture is taken out and 10 liters of water is
added to the mixture, then the quantity of milk
becomes 160% of the quantity of water. Find
the initial quantity of mixture?
(A) 180 liters

(B) 240 liters
(C) 360 liters

(D) 300 liters
(E) None of these

38.The ratio of the number of males to females in
an office is 1:2 and the average salary of 48
employees in the office is Rs.500. If the
average salary of females is Rs.450, then find
the average salary of males in the office?
(A) Rs.750

(B) Rs.600
(C) Rs.560

(D) Rs.640
(E) None of these

39.Pipes A and B can fill the tank in 60 minutes
and 80 minutes respectively and pipe C can
empty 75% of the tank in 90 minutes. If pipes
A, B and C opened together and after 20
minutes, pipe C is closed, then find the time
taken by pipes A and B together to fill the
remaining tank?
(A) 30 minutes

(B) 16 minutes
(C) 20 minutes

(D) 45 minutes
(E) 24 minutes

40.5 years ago, the ratio of the age of A, B and C
is 3:2:5 respectively. If the product of the
present age of A and C is 600, then find the
sum of the present age of A and B together?
(A) 35 years

(B) 20 years
(C) 40 years

(D) 25 years
(E) None of these
Direction (41-45): Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions.
The total quantity of fruits (lychee, peach and
apricot) produced in three different months i.e.
March, April and May. The ratio of the quantity
of lychee, peach and apricot produced in April
is 3:5:2 respectively. The difference between
the quantity of peaches and apricot produced in
April is 120 kg. The quantity of lychee
produced in May is 50% more than that of
April and the quantity of apricot produced in
May is two times more than the quantity of
apricot produced in April. The quantity of
peaches produced in May is 16% of the total
quantity of fruits produced in that month. The
total quantity of lychee and peach produced in
all three months together is 600 kg and 440 kg
respectively.

40.5 years ago, the ratio of the age of A, B and C
is 3:2:5 respectively. If the product of the
present age of A and C is 600, then find the
sum of the present age of A and B together?
(A) 35 years

(B) 20 years
(C) 40 years

(D) 25 years
(E) None of these
Direction (41-45): Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions.
The total quantity of fruits (lychee, peach and
apricot) produced in three different months i.e.
March, April and May. The ratio of the quantity
of lychee, peach and apricot produced in April
is 3:5:2 respectively. The difference between
the quantity of peaches and apricot produced in
April is 120 kg. The quantity of lychee
produced in May is 50% more than that of
April and the quantity of apricot produced in
May is two times more than the quantity of
apricot produced in April. The quantity of
peaches produced in May is 16% of the total
quantity of fruits produced in that month. The
total quantity of lychee and peach produced in
all three months together is 600 kg and 440 kg
respectively.

41.If the total quantity of fruits produced in March
is 60 kg more than that of May, then find the
ratio of the quantity of lychee to apricot
produced in March?
(A) 3:1 (B) 9:7
(C) 8:5 (D) 4:3
(E) 1:2

42.If the quantity of lychee and peach produced in
June is 60 kg and 240 kg more than that of May
and the quantity of apricot produced in June is
5/4th of the quantity of apricot produced in
April, then find the total quantity of fruits
produced in June?
(A) 510 kg

(B) 490 kg
(C) 660 kg

(D) 380 kg
(E) None of these

43.The quantity of lychee produced in May is how
much more/less than the quantity of peach
produced in March?
(A) 30 kg less (B) 70 kg more
(C) 45 kg less (D) 20 kg more
(E) None of these

44.Find the ratio of the total quantity of fruits
produced in April to the quantity of apricot
produced in May?
(A) 6:7

(B) 5:3
(C) 7:4

(D) 1:1
(E) None of these

45.If the quantity of lychee, peach and apricot sold
in May is 120 kg, 70 kg and 210 kg
respectively, then the quantity of fruits unsold
in May is what percentage of the total quantity
of fruits produced in May?
(A) 18%

(B) 54%
(C) 20%

(D) 32%
(E) None of these

46.A boat covers x km upstream in 5 hours and the
same boat covers (x+30) km downstream in 4
hours. Find the time taken by the boat to cover
(x+30) km in still water if the ratio of the speed
of the boat to stream is 4:1?
(A) 5 hours

(B) 3 hours
(C) 4 hours

(D) 6 hours
(E) None of these

47.The ratio of the speed of train A to B is 3:2 and
the sum of the length of trains A and B is 480
m. If the time taken by train A to cross a pole is
2/5th of the time taken by train B to cross the
same pole, then find the length of train A?
(A) 100 m

(B) 160 m
(C) 150 m

(D) 180 m
(E) 120 m

48.The marked price of the table fan is 5X% more
than its cost price and the cost price of the table
fan is Rs.1200. If the shopkeeper offers a
discount of Rs.120, then he earns a profit of
3X%. Find the marked price of the table fan?
(A) Rs.1380

(B) Rs.1500
(C) Rs.1440

(D) Rs.1320
(E) Rs.1800

49.A and B entered into a business and the
investment of A is 60% more than that of B.
After 4 months, C joined the business with an
investment of Rs.P. At the end of the year, the
profit of the business is Rs.7600 and the profit
share of A is Rs.3200. Find the profit share of
C?
(A) Rs.1900

(B) Rs.2400

(C) Rs.3000

(D) Rs.2000
(E) None of these

50.The ratio of the breadth to the height of
isosceles triangle B is 2:1 and the area of
isosceles triangle A is 10% less than that of
isosceles triangle B. If the breadth and height of
isosceles triangle A is 30 m and 24 m
respectively, then find the sum of the breadth
and height of isosceles triangle B?
(A) 56 m

(B) 42 m
(C) 60 m

(D) 36 m
(E) None of these
Direction (51-55): What value should come in the
place of (?) in the following number series?

51.961, ?, 1063, 1114, 1165, 1216
(A) 1012 (B) 982
(C) 1032 (D) 1002
(E) 992

52.26, ?, 65, 91, 143, 169
(A) 38 (B) 31
(C) 44 (D) 39
(E) 29

53.?, 368, 512, 612, 676, 712
(A) 256 (B) 172
(C) 312 (D) 208
(E) 310

54.274, 296, 340, 406, ?, 604
(A) 532 (B) 465
(C) 494 (D) 508
(E) 480

55.72, 36, 40, 20, 24, ?
(A) 16

(B) 28
(C) 15

(D) 20
(E) 12
Direction (56-60): Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions.
The given line graph shows the total number of
phones and tablets manufactured by five
different companies i.e. P, Q, R, S and T and
also given the total number of phones and
tablets sold by five different companies.

56.If the number of phones sold by company X is
equal to the total number of phones and tablets
sold by company S and the number of tablets
sold by company X is 4/9th of the total number
of phones and tablets sold by company Q, then
find the total number of phones and tablets sold
by company X?
(A) 450

(B) 600
(C) 510

(D) 360
(E) None of these

57.If the ratio of the number of phones to tablets
manufactured by company S is 3:2 and the ratio
of the number of phones to tablets unsold by
company S is 4:3, then find the number of
phones sold by company S?
(A) 400

(B) 180
(C) 320

(D) 250
(E) None of these

58.If the average number of phones, tablets and
laptops sold by company A is 50 less than the
total number of phones and tablets unsold by
company Q, then find the ratio of the total
number of phones, tablets and laptops sold by
company A to the total number of phones and
tablets manufactured by company S?
(A) 4:5

(B) 8:7
(C) 8:5

(D) 3:1
(E) None of these

59.The total number of phones and tablets unsold
by company P is what percentage more than the
total number of phones and tablets unsold by
company R?
(A) 30%

(B) 20%
(C) 45%

(D) 10%
(E) None of these

60.If the number of phones sold by company P is
50% more than that of tablets sold in that
company and the number of phones sold by
company R is three times the number of tablets
sold in that company, then find the total number
of tablets sold by companies P and R together?
(A) 540

(B) 310
(C) 620

(D) 580
(E) 700
Direction (61-65): What approximate value should
come in the place of (?) in the following
questions?

61.173.84 ÷ 2.80 – 280.02 ÷ 7.07 = √? – √35.75
(A) 576

(B) 400
(C) 324

(D) 676
(E) 729

62.21.82 × 8.08 + ?2 = 9.98 × 25.20 + 13.73 × 5.10
(A) 10

(B) 17
(C) 15

(D) 12
(E) 19

63.∛(295.86 + 6.063) × ? = 152.05 × 19.90
(A) 210

(B) 380
(C) 160

(D) 240
(E) 420

64.29.902 – 74.74% of 479.80 – 15.15% of 800.05
= ?
(A) 450

(B) 480
(C) 420

(D) 440
(E) 400

65.√530 + 158.87 – ? = 347.37 – 720.69
(A) 293

(B) 342
(C) 606

(D) 410
(E) 556

Direction (66-68): Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below.

Six persons – A, B, C, D, E and F are of
different heights. More than two persons are
taller than E. D is shorter than only B. Both A
and F are shorter than C. Neither A nor F is
taller than E. A is not the shortest person. The
height of the second tallest person is 168 cm
and the fourth tallest person is 152 cm.

66.What is the possible height of C?
(A) 169 cm

(B) 170 cm
(C) 160 cm

(D) 150 cm
(E) 180 cm

67.If the height of the shortest person is 7 cm less
than E’s height, then what is the height of F?
(A) 147 cm

(B) 145 cm
(C) 142 cm

(D) 143 cm
(E) Data inadequate

68.What is the possible sum of the heights of B
and E?
(A) 319 cm

(B) 320 cm
(C) 321 cm

(D) 318 cm
(E) 315 cm

Direction (69-72): Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below.
In a certain code language,
“Computer virus replicate files” is coded as “cr
nb os um”
“Files may be reopened” is coded as “ae tj hi
cr”
“Virus cause severe harm” is coded as “um mc
xl wv”
“Severe damaged files reopened” is coded
as “xl ae cr kz”
(Note: All codes are two letter codes only)

69.What is the code for the phrase “Virus damaged

files” in the given code language?
(A) kz ae xl (B) cr kz um
(C) um hi tj (D) nb wv cr
(E) ae kz cr

70.Which of the following phrase denotes “mc nb”
in the given code language?
(A) Replicate cause

(B) Harm replicate
(C) Computer harm

(D) Cause Reopened
(E) Cannot be determined

71.If “harmful disease” is coded as “mc df”, then
what may be the code for the phrase “cause
severe” in the given code language?
(A) df xl (B) mc nb
(C) Wv xl (D) cr mc
(E) kz df

72.What is the possible code for the phrase “May
be holiday” in the given code language?
(A) tj hi qx

(B) mc wv cr
(C) tj nb os

(D) tj ae hi
(E) hi xl ae
Direction (73-75): In the given questions, the
relationship between different elements is
shown in the statements followed by three
conclusions. Find the conclusions which is
definitely true.

73.Statements: M < P ≥ Q ≥ O; Q ≥ K = L > R; L
< B > F
Conclusions: I. L < P II. P = L III. P
< B
(A) Only conclusion I is true
(B) Only conclusion III is true
(C) Both conclusions I and II are true
(D) Either conclusion I or II is true
(E) Both conclusions I and III are true

74.Statements: S ≤ E = K > V; D ≤ E = M < X; X < H < N ≥ P Conclusions: I. H > V II. S < M III. E

N
(A) Only conclusion III is true
(B) Only conclusion I is true
(C) Both conclusions I and III are true
(D) Either conclusion I or III is true
(E) Both conclusions I and II are true

75.Statements: A ≥ G = E > F; E ≤ L = U < V; M = J > A = Y
Conclusions: I. V > F II. G ≤ L III. J >
U
(A) Only conclusion I is true
(B) Only conclusion II is true
(C) Only conclusion III is true
(D) Either conclusion I or II is true
(E) Both conclusions I and II are true
Direction (76-80): Study the following information
carefully and answer the question given below.

A certain number of persons are sitting in a
straight line facing south direction.
Only three persons sit between I and Q. I sits
third to the right of P. P sits exactly in the
middle of I and M. O sits fifth to the right of Q.
Only two persons sit to the right of O. Six
persons sit between O and R. The number of
persons sitting to the left of R is two more than
the number of persons sitting to the right of R.
T sits third from one of the extreme ends. Only
two persons sit between T and S.

76.How many persons are sitting in a row?
(A) 22

(B) 24
(C) 21

(D) 20
(E) 19

77.How many persons sit between P and T?
(A) Seven
(B) As many persons sit between Q and I
(C) Ten
(D) Five
(E) As many persons sit between O and R

78.Who among the following person sits third to
the right of T?
(A) The one who sits second to the right of M
(B) T
(C) The one who sits third to the left of R
(D) The one who sits second to the right of O
(E) I

79.What is the position of R with respect to Q?
(A) Second to the right (B) Immediate left
(C) Immediate right (D) Second to the left
(E) Third to the right

80.Who among the following person sits exactly
between Q and I?
(A) O
(B) The one who sits second to the right of T
(C) The one who sits to the immediate left of P
(D) M
(E) R
Direction (81-85): Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below.
Eight people G, H, I, J, K, L, M and N are
living in a four storey building such that the
bottommost floor is numbered as 1 and the

floor immediately above it is numbered as 2
and so on. Each of them likes different drinks.
Note-I: Each floor has two flats viz., Flat A and
Flat B, where Flat A is to the west of Flat B.
Note-II: Flat A of floor 2 is immediately above
Flat A of floor 1 and immediately below Flat A
of floor 3 and so on.
H lives three floors above K, who lives
southwest of M, who lives on an odd numbered
floor. M lives to the east of the one who likes
Fanta. The one who likes Fanta lives
immediately below the one who likes Slice. H
doesn’t like Slice. G lives to the north of the
one who likes Frooti. I lives to the southeast of
the one who likes Frooti. L lives to the east of
N. Both H and M don’t like Tropicana. The one
who likes Tropicana lives immediately above
the one who likes Sprite and northeast of the
one who likes Pepsi. J lives to the northwest of
the one who likes Coke. One of the people likes
Mazza.

81.Who among the following person lives to the
southwest of L?
(A) The one who likes Slice
(B) M
(C) The one who likes Pepsi
(D) H
(E) G

82.H lives to the _ of G?
(A) southeast (B) west
(C) Southwest (D) Northwest
(E) Northeast

83._ live to the east of _?
(A) L, H (B) I, K
(C) G, M (D) L, G
(E) H, N

84.Which of the following statement is/are true
with respect to the final arrangement?
(A) L likes Coke
(B) G lives in Flat B
(C) J likes Pepsi
(D) H likes Maaza
(E) M lives in Flat A

85.How many floors are there between M and N?
(A) None
(B) One

(C) Two
(D) As many floors above K
(E) Both lives on the same floor

86.If all the digits of the number “28639745” are
arranged in ascending order from left to right,
then what is the sum of digits which are fifth
from the left end and second from the right
end?
(A) 14

(B) 13
(C) 11

(D) 10
(E) 9

87.How many such pairs of letters are there in the
word “FEDERALIZATION” each of which has
as many letters between them as there in the
English alphabetical series (Both forward and
backward directions)?
(A) 10

(B) 8
(C) 9

(D) 12
(E) 11

88.Which of the following will be the next term of
the given series?
DF10 GI16 JL22_____
(A) MO28

(B) NO27
(C) LO26

(D) OQ32
(E) None of these
Direction (89-90): Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below.
Point N is 14m north of Point H. Point P is 5m
north of Point M. Point G is 9m east of point P.
Point H is 12m west of Point M. Point G is 17m
north of Point L which is 15m east of Point K.
Point V is 10m south-west of Point N. Point S
is north of Point V and west of Point N
If Mr. Z walks from Point B, he walks 10m
towards east to reach point A then he turns left
and walks 8m to reach point V where he turns
right and walks 4m to reach point C. Point C is
south of Point D which is west of Point N.
Point D is the midpoint of the points S and N.

89.In which of the following direction is point V
with respect to point P?
(A) Northwest

(B) Southeast
(C) Northeast

(D) Southwest
(E) None of these

90.What is the shortest distance between the points
H and P?
(A) 13m

(B) 15m
(C) 12m

(D) 10m
(E) None of the above

Direction (91-95): Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below.
Ten persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J are
sitting around a circular table facing the center.
J sits second to the right of A. A sits three
places away from G. B neither sits adjacent to
G nor A. B sits second to the left of C. As many
persons sit between B and C as between B and
G. E is an immediate neighbour of C. Three
persons sit between E and H. F sits third to the
left of D.

91.Who among the following person sits fifth to
the left of I?
(A) J
(B) The one who sits second to the right of F
(C) I
(D) The one who sits immediate right of B
(E) E

92.How many persons sit between G and B, when
counted from the left of G?
(A) None

(B) One
(C) Four

(D) Five
(E) More than Five

93.Which of the following statement is/are true
with respect to the final arrangement?
(A) B sits second to the left of I
(B) G sits adjacent to A
(C) Four persons sit between C and J
(D) No one sits between J and E
(E) F sits to the immediate left of B

94.If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical
order from A in an anti-clockwise direction,
then how many persons remain unchanged in
their position(excluding A)?
(A) One

(B) None
(C) Two

(D) Three
(E) More than Three

95.As many persons sit between F and I as
between G and _?

(A) E (B) J
(C) F (D) A
(E) C
Direction (96-100): Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below.
Ten persons I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q and R buy
groceries from three different stores – Akila
Stores, Garos Stores, National Stores but not
necessarily in the same order. Atleast two
persons but not more than four persons bought
groceries from the same store.
L buys groceries from the same store as M but
not in National Stores. I and J doesn’t buy from
the same store. N buys from the same store as I,
who doesn’t buy from the same store as L.
Only P buys from the same store as J, but not in
Garos Stores. I buys from the same store as K
and O. As many persons buy from Akila stores
as from Garos stores. R doesn’t buy from the
same store as O, who doesn’t buy from Garos
stores.

96.Who among the following person buys
groceries from Garos stores?
(A) L

(B) J
(C) O

(D) Q
(E) Both A and D

97.Who among the following pair of persons buy
groceries from the same store?
(A) R, J

(B) Q, L
(C) Q, P

(D) L, K
(E) M, O

98.Which of the following statement is/are true
with respect to the final arrangement?
(A) R and K buy groceries from the same store
(B) O buy groceries in National stores
(C) Three persons buy groceries from Garos
stores
(D) N and O buy groceries from the Akila
stores
(E) None is true

99.On which of the following department does P
buy groceries?
I) Garos Stores
II) National Stores
III) Akila Stores

(A) Either I or II

(B) Only I
(C) Only II

(D) Only III
(E) Either I or III

100.How many people buy groceries from Akila stores?

(A) Four
(B) Three
(C) Two
(D) Either A or B
(E) Can’t be determined

Answers

1. Answer: B
   Here, the correct sequence of the rearrangement
   will be EABD with one sentence C should be
   omitted as the sentence C is different in context
   with all others. First sentence will be E which
   introduces us with the trace founded by
   geologist and it should be followed by A which
   give us the information about the place where
   extinction happened and this should be
   followed by B which give us the explanation
   about the loss of lives which happened during
   the extinction and last sentence in the
   rearrangement should be D which explains us
   about the worst hit by the extinction. But option
   C should be omitted as it is giving some
   information about aircraft which is of no use
   here in the rearrangement.
   So, option B is the correct answer.

2.Answer: D
Here, the correct sequence of the rearrangement
will be EABD with one sentence C should be
omitted as the sentence C is different in context
with all others. First sentence will be E which
introduces us with the trace founded by
geologist and it should be followed by A which
give us the information about the place where
extinction happened and this should be
followed by B which give us the explanation
about the loss of lives which happened during
the extinction and last sentence in the
rearrangement should be D which explains us
about the worst hit by the extinction. But option
C should be omitted as it is giving some
information about aircraft which is of no use
here in the rearrangement.
So, option D is the correct answer.

3.Answer: E
Here, the correct sequence of the rearrangement
will be EABD with one sentence C should be
omitted as the sentence C is different in context
with all others. First sentence will be E which

introduces us with the trace founded by
geologist and it should be followed by A which
give us the information about the place where
extinction happened and this should be
followed by B which give us the explanation
about the loss of lives which happened during
the extinction and last sentence in the
rearrangement should be D which explains us
about the worst hit by the extinction. But option
C should be omitted as it is giving some
information about aircraft which is of no use
here in the rearrangement.
So, option E is the correct answer.

4.Answer: E
Here, the correct sequence of the rearrangement
will be EABD with one sentence C should be
omitted as the sentence C is different in context
with all others. First sentence will be E which
introduces us with the trace founded by
geologist and it should be followed by A which
give us the information about the place where
extinction happened and this should be
followed by B which give us the explanation
about the loss of lives which happened during
the extinction and last sentence in the
rearrangement should be D which explains us
about the worst hit by the extinction. But option
C should be omitted as it is giving some
information about aircraft which is of no use
here in the rearrangement.
So, option E is the correct answer.

5.Answer: E
Here, the correct sequence of the rearrangement
will be EABD with one sentence C should be
omitted as the sentence C is different in context
with all others. First sentence will be E which
introduces us with the trace founded by
geologist and it should be followed by A which
give us the information about the place where
extinction happened and this should be
followed by B which give us the explanation
about the loss of lives which happened during
the extinction and last sentence in the

rearrangement should be D which explains us
about the worst hit by the extinction. But option
C should be omitted as it is giving some
information about aircraft which is of no use
here in the rearrangement.
Therefore, sentence C of the question should be
omitted and in options C is not given. So,
option E is the correct answer.

6.Answer: D
Here, A-b, B-c, C-a is the correct match and the
sentence thus formed are
At the COP27 conference in Egypt, delegates
have at their disposal decades of research into
warming trajectories published by the U.N.
The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate
Change (IPCC) produces reports roughly every
five years that represent global scientific
consensus on climate change, its causes and its
impact.
Previously rare weather extremes are becoming
more common, and some regions are more
vulnerable than others.
So, option D is the correct answer.

7.Answer: A
Here, only A-c is matchable and rest two are
not. In B the sentence end with ice but a cannot
be matched just to see cream because the
sentence makes no sense and in case of C it
cannot be matched with any of the sentence of
column 2. Only A-c can be matched and the
sentence thus formed will be
Researchers found that the melting of
Greenland’s largest basin could contribute up
to six times more to global sea-level rise by
2100 than climate models currently project.
So, option A is the correct answer.

8.Answer: A
Here, A-a, B-b, C-c all three can be matched
with each other as they form sentences
contextually and grammatically correct. The
sentence thus formed will be
A $3 billion water transfer project between
Lesotho and Botswana and a $10 million plan
to improve the public water system in Mauritius
were among dozens of projects listed, including
19 in Africa.
By contrast, the world’s leading development
banks lent $51 billion to poorer countries in
2021, with private investors contributing just
$13 billion, a recent report from the lenders
said.

France and Germany also signed loan
agreements to extend 300 million euros
($300.69 million) in concessional financing to
South Africa to support its shift away from
coal-fired power.
So, option A is the correct answer.

9.Answer: C
Here, only C-a can be matched correctly as
none other this pair makes a sentence
grammatically and contextually correct. The
sentence thus formed will be
The digital rupee rollout is being touted as a big
step towards digital transformation in India.
So, option C is the correct answer.

10.Answer: D
The first sentence is error free. The use of
“than” in the second sentence is not correct and
it should be replaced with “then” because both
mean different things. Than is used where there
is a comparison while then is used when
dealing with time in a sentence. The error in c
sentence is children. Children itself is a plural
and the word children is not correct.
So, option D is the correct answer.

11.Answer: B
only sentence b contains error. The use of
“from” after vulnerable is not correct and it
should be replaced with “to” because
vulnerable is always followed by “to” not from.
So, option B is the correct answer.

12.Answer: C
Only the third sentence contains error. The use
of has “an” in third sentence is not appropriate
and it should be replaced with “a”. So, option C
is the correct answer.

13.Answer: D
The use of “in” in the first sentence is not
appropriate and it should be replaced with
across as in is used for inside anything but
across is used for all over and here across will
be used as Meta parted ways with employees
all over the globe. In the second sentence, the
use of “of” is not appropriate as “on” will be
used as the workers were on H!B visa and in
the third sentence the use of “firing on” is not
appropriate as it means to shoot with a gun,
here “on” should be omitted. So, option D is the
correct answer.

14.Answer: D
Here, in the highlighted part of the sentence,
Indicate should be replaced with indicates as

new study is a singular, and “An” should be
replaced with “a” as majority starts with a
consonant not a vowel.
So, option D is the correct answer.

15.Answer: E
The given highlighted part of the sentence
doesn’t need any improvement. So, option E is
the correct answer.

16.Answer: D
Both (b) and (c) can be used to form a single
sentence from the two sentences given below,
implying the same meaning as expressed in the
statement sentences.
(b)- Richard Tornetta, a drummer, has sued
Tesla CEO Elon Musk over a pay package that
the billionaire received in 2018.
(c) -Tesla CEO Elon Musk has been sued by
Richard Tornetta, a drummer over a pay
package that the billionaire received in 2018.
Hence option D is the correct answer.

17.Answer: A
Only (a) can be used to form a single sentence
from the two sentences given below, implying
the same meaning as expressed in the statement
sentences.
For survival and well-being of the individual
who belongs to different communities, society
plays a very crucial role in giving shape to the
individual’s career and future life.
Hence option A is the correct answer.

18.Answer: E
Both (a) and (b) starters can be used to form a
single sentence from the two sentences given
below, implying the same meaning as
expressed in the statement sentences.
The sentences are as follows-
(a) Ahead of Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s
visit to Telangana’s Ramagundam, a poster
questioning the ‘unfulfilled promises’ to the
state cropped up in the area.
(b) A poster questioning the ‘unfulfilled
promises’ to the state by cropped up in the area,
ahead of the visit by Prime Minister Narendra
Modi’s to Telangana’s Ramagundam.
Hence option E is the correct answer.

19.Answer: C
According to the passage, The Atharva Veda
contains many Ayurveda verses, from which
we may assume that Ayurveda is as old as the
Veda. Anything other than this is not correct.
Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

20.Answer: E
According to the passage, One Kashmiri Pandit
Shri Dridhabal re-edited and re-constructed the
Charaka Samhita in the 9th century.
Therefore, option E is the correct answer.

21.Answer: E
The given part contains no error. Therefore,
option E is the correct answer.

22.Answer: E
“Conspicuous” means “attracting notice or
attention.” All of the given options are the same
in meaning as conspicuous. So, option E is the
correct answer.

23.Answer: C
According to this line, “Ayurveda, based upon
the Indian philosophical, psychological,
conventional and medicinal understandings, is a
traditional health care system from centuries”,
we can say that option C is the correct answer.

24.Answer: C
Only option C is correct with respect to the
passage given. Because option A states that,
none of the ayurvedic personalities shared the
origin of divine of Ayurveda as it was shared
by many and in option B through the oral
tradition, the Vedas were kept alive but earlier
scripts were written on Talapatra, Bhojapatra ,
but they were saved for long is also incorrect as
the earlier script were not saved for long. So,
option C is the correct answer.

25.Answer: A
According to the lines in passage, Ayurveda
(Sanskrit: ayu—life; veda—knowledge of) or
ayurvedic medicine is a form of alternative
medicine, first described by Agnivesha in his
book Agnivesh tantra, which later revised by
the Charaka and presently known as Charaka
Samhita. It is believed that he lived some time
between 2 BC and 2 AD, we can conclude that
“He” is here being referred as Agnivesh. So,
option A is the correct answer.

26.Answer: D
Here, option D is the correct option as it means
originating or occurring where both A and B
are antonyms of indigenous and sartorial means
relating to clothes which makes no sense here.

27.Answer: D
Here, option D is the correct answer as it means
pushed suddenly or violently in a fixed
direction also as per the situation of paragraph

the rocket requires thrust to start, rest all
options are antonyms of thrust.

28.Answer: D
Here, the blank requires a word which means
intensify or increase and enhance and exalt
means the same. So, option D is the correct
answer.

29.Answer: D
Here, option D is the correct answer as contract
is being done between one web and in space
and whenever two things or objects are linked
together or compared with each other, we use
between. Among and amongst are used for
more than two.

30.Answer: D
Here, option D will come in the blank as the
situation demands the expectation that it will be
launched in upcoming January.

Quantitative Aptitude

Answer (31-35): The total number of candidates who
qualified from all five states together = 450 ×
100/(24 – 18)

= 450 × 100/6 = 7500
Mumbai:
The total number of candidates who qualified
= 7500 × 24/100 = 1800
The number of males who qualified = 1800 ×
2/(2 + 1) = 1800 × 2/3 = 1200
The number of females who qualified
= 1800 – 1200 = 600
Chennai:
The total number of candidates who qualified
= 7500 × 18/100 = 1350
The number of males who qualified
= 1350 × 2/(2 + 1) = 1350 × 2/3 = 900
The number of females who qualified
= 1350 – 900 = 450

Delhi:
The total number of candidates who qualified
= 7500 × 20/100 = 1500
The number of males who qualified
= 1500 × 2/(2 + 1) = 1500 × 2/3 = 1000
The number of females who qualified
= 1500 – 1000 = 500
Bangalore:
The total number of candidates who qualified
= 7500 × 16/100 = 1200
The number of males who qualified
= 1200 × 2/(2 + 1) = 1200 × 2/3 = 800

The number of females who qualified
= 1200 – 800 = 400
Kolkata:
The total number of candidates who qualified
= 7500 × 22/100 = 1650
The number of males who qualified
= 1650 × 2/(2 + 1) = 1650 × 2/3 = 1100
The number of females who qualified
= 1650 – 1100 = 550

31.Answer: B
The total number of candidates who qualified
from Hyderabad = 1350 × 4/5 = 1080
The number of males who qualified from
Hyderabad
= 900 × 5/6 = 750
The number of females who qualified from
Hyderabad = 1080 – 750 = 330

32.Answer: D
Required difference = 1100 – 450 = 650

33.Answer: C
Required percentage = 600/1500 × 100 = 40%

34.Answer: A
The number of postgraduate males who
qualified from Mumbai = 1200 × (100 –
75)/100
= 1200 × 25/100 = 300
The number of postgraduate males who
qualified from Delhi = 1000 × (100 – 64)/100 =
1000 × 36/100 = 360
Required total = 300 + 360 = 660

35.Answer: B
The total number of candidates who qualified
from Bangalore after the increase = 1200 ×
125/100
= 1500
The number of males who qualified from
Bangalore after the increase = 800 × 112.5/100
= 800 × 9/8
= 900

The number of females who qualified from
Bangalore after the increase = 1500 – 900 =
600

36.Answer: D
8400 × 10 × 5/100 + 7000 × R × 4/100 = 9800
4200 + 280R = 9800
280R = 5600
R = 20

37.Answer: A
The ratio of the initial quantity of milk to water
in the mixture = 66.66:(100 – 66.66) =
66.66:33.33 = 2:1
(2x – 60 × 2/(2 + 1))/(1x – 60 × 1/(2 + 1) + 10)
= 160/100
(2x – 60 × 2/3)/(1x – 60 × 1/3 + 10) = 8/5
(2x – 40) × 5 = (1x – 10) × 8
10x – 200 = 8x – 80
2x = 120
x = 60
The initial quantity of mixture = (2 + 1) × 60 =
3 × 60
= 180 liters

38.Answer: B
Let the average salary of males in the office =
a
The number of males in the office = 48 × 1/(1 +
2)
= 48 × 1/3 = 16
The number of females in the office = 48 – 16
= 32
16 × a + 32 × 450 = 48 × 500
16a = 24000 – 14400
16a = 9600
a = 600
The average salary of males in the office =
Rs.600

39.Answer: C
Pipe C can empty the tank = 90 × 100/75 = 90
× 4/3
= 120 minutes
Let the time taken by pipes A and B together
fill the remaining tank = x
(1/60 + 1/80 – 1/120) × 20 + (1/60 + 1/80) × x
= 1
(4/240 + 3/240 – 2/240) × 20 + (4/240 + 3/240)
× x
= 1
5/240 × 20 + (7/240) × x = 1
7x/240 = 1 – 100/240
7x = 140/240 × 240
x = 140/7

x = 20 minutes

40.Answer: A
(3x + 5) × (5x + 5) = 600
15×2 + 15x + 25x + 25 = 600
15×2 + 40x – 575 = 0
3×2 + 8x – 115 = 0
3×2 – 15x + 23x – 115 = 0
3x(x – 5) + 23(x – 5) = 0
x = + 5, – 23/3
x = 5
The present age of A = 3 × 5 + 5 = 20 years
The present age of B = 2 × 5 + 5 = 15 years
Required sum = 20 + 15 = 35 years

Answer (41-45): The quantity of lychee produced in
April
= 120 × 3/(5 – 2) = 120 × 3/3 = 120 kg
The quantity of peach produced in April = 120
× 5/3
= 200 kg
The quantity of apricot produced in April = 120
× 2/3
= 80 kg
The total quantity of fruits produced in April
= 120 + 200 + 80 = 400 kg
The quantity of lychee produced in May
= 120 × 150/100 = 180 kg
The quantity of apricot produced in May
= 80 × 3 = 240 kg
The quantity of peach produced in May
= (180 + 240) × 16/(100 – 16) = 420 × 16/84 =
80 kg
The total quantity of fruits produced in May
= 180 + 80 + 240 = 500 kg
The quantity of lychee produced in March
= 600 – (120 + 180) = 300 kg
The quantity of peach produced in March
= 440 – (200 + 80) = 160 kg

41.Answer: A
The total quantity of fruits produced in March
= 500 + 60 = 560 kg
The quantity of apricot produced in March
= 560 – (300 + 160) = 100 kg

Required ratio = 300:100 = 3:1

42.Answer: C
The quantity of lychee produced in June
= 180 + 60 = 240 kg
The quantity of peach produced in June
= 80 + 240 = 320 kg
The quantity of apricot produced in June
= 80 × 5/4 = 100 kg
The quantity of fruits produced in June
= 240 + 320 + 100 = 660 kg

43.Answer: D
Required difference = 180 – 160 = 20 kg more

44. Answer: B
Required ratio = 400:240 = 5:3

45.Answer: C
The quantity of fruits unsold in May = 500 – (120 + 70 + 210) = 500 – 400 = 100
Required percentage = 100/500 × 100 = 20%

46.Answer: A
Let the speed of the boat in still water = 4a
And the speed of the stream = 1a
(4a + 1a) × 4 = x + 30
5a × 4 = x + 30
20a = x + 30 —(1)
(4a – 1a) × 5 = x
15a = x —(2)
From (1) and (2),
20a = 15a + 30
5a = 30
a = 6
The speed of the boat in still water = 4 × 6 = 24
km/hr
20 × 6 = x + 30
x = 120 – 30
x = 90
Required time = (90 + 30)/24 = 120/24 = 5
hours

47.Answer: D
Let the length of train A = a
And the length of train B = 480 – a
(a/3x)/((480 – a)/2x) = 2/5
a/(480 – a) = 2/5 × 3/2
a = 3/5 × (480 – a)
5a + 3a = 480 × 3
a = 180
The length of train A = 180 m

48.Answer: B
1200 × (100 + 5X)/100 – 120 = 1200 × (100 +
3X)/100
1200 + 60X– 120 = 1200 + 36X
24X = 120
X = 5
The marked price of the table fan = 1200 ×
(100 + 5 × 5)/100 = 1200 × 125/100 = Rs.1500

49.Answer: B
The ratio of the investment of A to B = 160:100
= 8:5
The ratio of the profit share of A, B and C = (8x
× 12) : (5x × 12) : (P × 8)
= 24x:15x:2P
The profit share of B = 3200 × 15x/24x =
Rs.2000
The profit share of C = 7600 – (3200 + 2000) =
7600 – 5200 = Rs.2400

50. Answer:C
The area of isosceles triangle A = 30 × 24/2 =
360 m2
The area of isosceles triangle B = 360 ×
100/(100 – 10) = 360 × 100/90 = 400 m2
2x × 1x/2 = 400
x2 = 400
x2 = 202
x = 20
The sum of the breadth and height of isosceles
triangle A = (2 + 1) × 20 = 3 × 20 = 60 m

51.Answer: A
961 + 51 = 1012
1012 + 51 = 1063
1063 + 51 = 1114
1114 + 51 = 1165
1165 + 51 = 1216

52.Answer: D
13 × 2= 26
13 × 3 = 39
13 × 5 = 65
13 × 7 = 91
13 × 11 = 143
13 × 13 = 169

53.Answer: B
172 + 142 = 368
368 + 122 = 512
512 + 102 = 612
612 + 82 = 676
676 + 62 = 712

54.Answer: C
274 + 22 = 296
296 + 44 = 340
340 + 66 = 406
406 + 88 = 494
494 + 110 = 604

55.Answer: E
72 × 0.5 = 36

36 + 4 = 40
40 × 0.5 = 20
20 + 4 = 24
24 × 0.5 = 12

Answer (56-60): The total number of phones and
tablets unsold by company P = 1700 – 1050 = 650
The total number of phones and tablets unsold
by company Q = 900 – 450 = 450
The total number of phones and tablets unsold
by company R = 1300 – 800 = 500
The total number of phones and tablets unsold
by company S = 750 – 400 = 350
The total number of phones and tablets unsold
by company T = 1400 – 900 = 500

56.Answer: B
The number of phones sold by company X = 400
The number of tablets sold by company X =450 × 4/9 = 200
Required total = 400 + 200 = 600

57.Answer: D
The number of phones manufactured by company S
= 750 × 3/(3 + 2) = 750 × 3/5 = 450
The number of phones unsold by company S
= 350 × 4/(4 + 3) = 350 × 4/7 = 200
The number of phones sold by company S
= 450 – 200 = 250

58.Answer: C
The total number of phones, tablets and laptops
sold by company A = (450 – 50) × 3 = 400 × 3 = 1200
Required ratio = 1200:750 = 8:5

59.Answer: A
The total number of phones and tablets unsold
by shop P = 650

The total number of phones and tablets unsold
by shop R = 500
Required percentage = (650 – 500)/500 × 100
= 150/500 × 100 = 30%

60.Answer: C
The ratio of the number of phones to tablets
sold by company P = 150:100 = 3:2
The number of tablets sold by company P
= 1050 × 2/(3 + 2) = 1050 × 2/5 = 420
The ratio of the number of phones to tablets
sold by company R = 3:1
The number of tablets sold by company R
= 800 × 1/(3 + 1) = 800 × 1/4 = 200
The total number of tablets sold by companies
P and R together = 420 + 200 = 620

61.Answer: A
173.84 ÷ 2.80 – 280.02 ÷ 7.07 = √? – √35.75
174 ÷ 3 – 280 ÷7 = √? – √36
58 – 40 = √? – 6
√? = 18 + 6
√? = 24
? = 576

62.Answer: D
21.82 × 8.08 + ?2 = 9.98 × 25.20 + 13.73 × 5.10
22 × 8 + ?2 = 10 × 25 + 14 × 5
176 + ?2 = 250 + 70
?2 = 144
?2 = 122
? = 12

63.Answer: B
∛(295.86 + 6.063) × ? = 152.05 × 19.90
∛(296 + 63) × ? = 152 × 20
∛(296 + 216) × ? = 152 × 20
∛512 × ? = 152 × 20
? = 152 × 20 ÷ 8
? = 380

64.Answer: C
29.902 – 74.74% of 479.80 – 15.15% of 800.05 = ?
302 – 75 × 480/100 – 15 × 800/100 = ?
900 – 360 – 120 = ?
? = 420

65.Answer: E
√530 + 158.87 – ? = 347.37 – 720.69
23 + 159 – ? = 347 – 721
182 = ? – 374
? = 556

66.Answer: C
B > D (168 cm) > C > E (152 cm) > A > F

67.Answer: B
B > D (168 cm) > C > E (152 cm) > A > F

68.Answer: C
B > D (168 cm) > C > E (152 cm) > A > F
Answer (69-72):

69. Answer: B
70. Answer: E
71. Answer: C
72. Answer: A
73. Answer: D

I. L < P (L = K ≤ Q ≤ P) –> False
II. P = L (P ≥ Q ≥ K = L) –> False
III. P < B (P ≥ Q ≥ K = L < B) –> False
So, Either conclusion I or II is true

74.Answer: B
I. H > V (H > X > M = E = K > V) –> True
II. S < M (S ≤ E = M) –> False
III. E > N (E = M < X < N) –> False
So, Only conclusion I is true

75.Answer: E
I. V > F (V > U = L ≥ E > F) –> True
II. G ≤ L (G = E ≤ L) –> True
III. J > U (J > A ≥ G = E ≤ L = U) –> False
So, Both conclusions I and II are true

Answer (76-80): the final arrangement

76. Answer: C
77. Answer: B
78. Answer: A
79. Answer: D
80. Answer: E

Answer (81-85): the final arrangement.

81. Answer: C
82. Answer: E
83. Answer: B
84. Answer: D
85. Answer: A
86. Answer: A
    28639745 –> 23456789 –> 6+8=14

87.Answer: E

88.Answer: A
One letter is between D and F, so on
The sum of the place values of both letters in
the alphabetic series,
D(4)+F(6)=10

90.Answer: A

√(12)2 + (5)2 = √144 + 25 = √169 = 13m

Answer (91-95): Final arrangement

91. Answer: D

92. Answer: E
93. Answer: C
94. Answer: B
95. Answer: A

Answer (96-100): Final arrangement.

96. Answer: E
97. Answer: B
98. Answer: D
99. Answer: C
100. Answer: A