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SSC CGL Prelims – Oct-23
Quantitative Aptitude
1. In a 3-digit number, the digit at hundred's place is thrice the digit at unit's place and the sum of all the digits is 13.
When the digits are reversed, the number is reduced by 396. Find the digit at ten's place.
(A) 5 (B) 3
(C) 7 (D) 4
2. '424x465y' is an eight-digit number which is divisible by 72. Find the value of x2 + y2 – 3xy.
(A) -11 (B) -19
(C) -21 (D) -29
3. Find the value of 'x' in the expression given below.
0.416¯×36-1.125×????
0.6¯
×24+0.583¯
×12 = -21
23
(A) 36 (B) 24
(C) 48 (D) 32
4. Find the area of a triangle with vertices A (0,12), O (0, 0) and B (13, 0). (A) 80 sq. units (B) 104 sq. units (C) 78 sq. units
(D) 65 sq. units
Direction (05-08): A shopkeeper sold five different articles by marking each of them above the cost price and then selling them after offering a certain discount on the marked price. The bar graph given below shows the percentage
by which the articles are marked above their cost price and the percentage discount given on each article at the time
of selling.
5. If the cost price of article 'A' isRs.1200 while cost price of article 'E' is 920, then find the difference between the
selling prices of both the articles.
(A) Rs.117 (B) Rs.107
(C) Rs.127 (D) Rs.147
6. If selling price of article 'B' and article 'D' is Rs.1531.2 and Rs.1209.6 respectively, then the cost price of article
'B' is how much percent more/less than cost price of article 'D'.
(A) 25% (B) 32.5%
(C) 30% (D) 37.5%
7. Find the average selling price of article 'A' and
article 'C' if cost price of article 'A' and article
'C' is Rs.8000 and Rs.4000 respectively.
(A) Rs.5660 (B) Rs.5680
(C) Rs.5880 (D)Rs.5280
8. If (x2 + y2 + z2) = 50, (xy + yz + zx) = -17 then
find the value of (x + y + z)2
(A) 16 (B) 14
(C) 12 (D) 20
9. A certain sum is divided among 'A', 'B' and
'C' in the ratio 5:3:6, respectively. If 'A'
received ?800 more than 'B', then find the sum
received by 'C'.
(A)Rs.1800 (B)Rs.2400
(C) Rs.3600 (D)Rs.1200
10. 'A' and 'B' entered into a business with initial investments of Rs.720 and 560, respectively. After 5 months,
'A' invested Rs.80 more while 'B' withdrew Rs.160. If total profit earned by 'A'and 'B' together at the end of 8 months
is Rs.2000, then find the profit share of 'A'.(A)Rs.1200 (B)Rs.800 (C)Rs.900 (D)Rs.1500
11. King Dashrath gave Rs.7800 to Ram. Ram kept 50% of amount and gave rest of the amount to Bharat. Bharat
repeated the same process and gave rest of the amount to Lakshman. Lakshman kept 60% of received amount and
gave rest of the amount to Satrughan. Find the amount received by Satrughan.
(A) Rs.640 (B) Rs.20
(C) Rs.780 (D) Rs.820
12. The sum of the cost prices of two articles 'A' and 'B' is Rs.3240 such that the cost price of article 'A' is Rs.400 more
than that of 'B'. If article 'A' is sold at 25% profit and there is an overall profit of 40%, then find the selling price
of article 'B'.
(A) Rs.2089 (B) Rs.2347
(C) Rs.2261 (D) Rs.2543
13. The quantity of a radioactive element decreases by 5% every 30 minutes. If the present quantity of the radioactive
element is 8000 kg, then find the quantity of the element left after 2 hours.
(A) 6834.15 kg (B) 7245.05 kg
(C) 6516.05 kg (D) 6674.05 kg
14. A container contains 240 litres milk and 160 litres water, only. How much litres of milk and water, respectively
should be added to mixture to make the ratio of milk to water 4:3?
(A) 30 litres, 60 litres (B) 80 litres, 50 litres
(C) 40 litres, 50 litres (D) 60 litres, 80 litres
15. A labourer is engaged in work for Rs.6250 for certain number of days. But he remained absent on some days and
he was paid only Rs.4500. Find his maximum possible daily wages.
(A)Rs.320 (B) Rs.400
(C)Rs.250 (D) Rs.500
16. Rajat increases his speed by 20% after every 3 hours. If total distance travelled by Rajat in 12 hours is 1207.8 km
then find the highest speed attained by Rajat in the travel of these 12 hours of journey.
(A) 129.6 km/hr (B) 134.8 km/hr
(C) 120 km/hr (D) 144 km/hr
17. The time taken by a boat to travel 80 km downstream and 110 km upstream, together is 3 hours. Find the time
taken by the same boat to travel 120 km downstream and 165 km upstream, together.
(A) 6 hours
(B) 4.5 hours
(C) 5.5 hours(D) Cannot be determined
18. The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 4:1:1.Then ratio of largest side to the perimeter is:
(A) 2:(v3 + 1) (B) v3:(2 + v3)
(C) 1:(2 + v3) (D) 2:3
19. If x = 26880, then find the value of (9x3 – x)/{7(3x + 1)(24x – 8)}
(A) 640 (B) 320
(C) 480 (D) 560
20. The value of (1 + cotx – cosecx)(1 + cosx +sinx)secx = ?
(A) 2 (B) secxcosecx
(C) sinxcosx (D) -2
21. Length and breadth of a rectangular field was 'x + 12' metres and 'x' metres. Two paths of width 8 metres were
made at the centre of the ground such that they intersect each other at the middle. If area of the remaining field was
448 m2, then find the value of 'x'.
(A) 12 (B) 16
(C) 20 (D) 24
22. A solid cuboid of dimensions 32 cm × 24 cm × 4 cm is melted to form identical cubes of edge 8 cm. Find the number
of such cubes formed.
(A) 12 (B) 4
(C) 8 (D) 6
23. In the given figure, a circle touches all the four sides of a quadrilateral ABCD whose sides AB = 12.8 cm, BC = 7.5
cm and CD = 5.6 cm. The
length of AD is:
(A) 10.7 cm (B) 10.9 cm
(C) 9.7 cm (D) 11.9 cm
24. The numerical value of 13/sec2x + 8/(1 + cot2x)+ 5sin2x is:
(A) 5 (B) 12
(C) 26 (D) 13
25. If ???? = 15 + 2v56 and ???? = v15 - 2v56, then find the value of 1 ????4+1 + 1????8+1.
(A) 8 (B) 4
(C) 2 (D) 1
Reasoning Aptitude
26. Select the set of numbers that is similar to the following set (23, 8, 41)
(A) 28, 9, 37 (B) 19, 5, 33
(C) 14, 5, 26 (D) 27, 6, 34
27. Among the following options, three of them are alike in a certain way. Find the odd one out:
(A) XUQI (B) TQLE
(C) PMHA (D) XUPI
28. If CLAIM = 97 and A = 26, then PRINT = ?
(A) 59 (B) 48
(C) 58 (D) 63
29. Find the wrong number in the series given below.4, 13, 41, 127, 382, 1151
(A) 127 (B) 1151
(C) 13 (D) 382
30. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it? w _ w z _
_ w x w _ w y _ x w _ w y
(A) yxzywx (B) zzyyyz
(C) xwyzwz (D) wzwyxy
31. Select the digit which can replace the '?' from the given four alternatives.
(A) 76 (B) 8
(C) 90 (D) 21
32. If 'X' denotes '×', 'V' denotes '-', 'N' denotes '+' and 'Q' denotes '÷', then 20 V 12 N 96 Q 6 X 4 = ?
(A) 72 (B) 64
(C) 60 (D) 54
33. From the given word, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word. MEDICATION
(A) TEAM (B) DONE
(C) CAME (D) ELECT
34. Arrange the given words as per the dictionary order.1. Sadness 2. Quantity 3. Raise 4. Recovery 5. Question
6. Rarely
(A) 2, 3, 4, 6, 5, 1 (B) 2, 6, 5, 3, 4, 1
(C) 2, 6, 3, 5, 4, 1 (D) 2, 5, 3, 6, 4, 1
35. Select the correct option that represents the given Venn diagram.
(A) Laptop, Mobile, Sim
(B) Cricket, Hockey, Badminton
(C) Water, Hydrogen, Atmosphere
(D) Crop, Paddy, Mango
36. The weight of 4 boxes are 80, 40, 30 and 90 kg. Which of the following can't be total weight inkg of any
combination of these boxes and a box can be used only once?
(A) 220 (B) 160
(C) 210 (D) 240
37. A word is represented by only one set of number as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers
given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns
and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these
matrices can be represented first by its column and next by its row, e.g., K can be represented by 00, 13, 23 etc. and
L can be represented by 30,14 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the code of given word “WORRIED”?
Matrix I:
Matrix II:
(A) 20, 79, 22, 43, 77, 11, 67
(B) 96, 75, 22, 43, 72, 11, 67
(C) 96, 24, 79, 34, 77, 11, 42
(D) 96, 24, 79, 79, 97, 16, 42
38. Arav starts walking from point P in east direction, after walking 4m he turns left from point Q and walks for 6m. He then turns right from point R and walks for 6m till point S. He then turns right and walks for 9m and then turns right from point T and walks for 8m till point U. In which direction is point U with respect to point P?
(A) South (B) North-East
(C) South-East (D) East
39. If A is mother of C, who is father of H, who is sister of N, whose mother is B's sister then how is H related to B?
(A) Father (B) Son
(C) Grandfather (D) Niece
40. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around the circular table facing towards the center. B sits second to the left of A. D sits opposite to F, who is not adjacent to B. C is not adjacent to A. Who sits immediate right of F?
(A) B (B) C
(C) A (D) E
41. In the question below there are two statements followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two statements disregarding commonly known facts. Statements:
All cat are dog. Some mouse are dog.Conclusions: I. Some mouse are cat. II. Some dog are cat.
(A) Only conclusion I follows
(B) Only conclusion II follows
(C) Both the conclusions I and II follow
(D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
42. Select the option in which will complete the following figure.
(A)
(b)
(c)
(D)
43. What are the minimum lines required to form the figure?
(A) 10 (B) 9
(C) 11 (D) 13
44. Identify the mirror image of the following figure when the mirror is placed to the right of the figure.
45. Select a figure from amongst the following which will continue the same series as established by the four?
46. Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first
number and sixth number is related to the fifth number.82 :72 : : 75 : ? : : 97 : 83
(A) 63 (B) 50
(C) 42 (D) 43
47. In the given question, select the related words from the given alternatives. Mango : Fruit : : Ginger : ?
(A) Root (B) Leaves
(C) Fruit (D) Stem
48. In a certain code of language, 'MAINTAIN' is coded as 'LNIAUNIA', 'INTERNAL' is coded as 'HETNSLAN' then what
will be the code of 'JUNCTION' in that language?
(A) NUJDOITM (B) ICNUUNOI
(C) KCTUNUOI (D) ICNTUNOI
49. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word 'HAMSTRING', each of which has as many letters between
them as in the English alphabetical series?
(A) Three (B) Four
(C) One (D) Two
50. Select the option that does NOT belong to the given series: XYZ, CBA, MNO, RQP, HGF
(A) RQP (B) HGF
(C) MNO (D) CBA
General Studies
51. All Genes are made up of_______.(A) Ribonucleic Acid
(B) Deoxyribonucleic Acid
(C) Nucleic Acids
(D) Amino Acids
52. A radio-active substance has a half-life of six months. Three-fourth of the substance will decay in ____.
(A) Six months
(B) Ten months
(C) Twelve Months
(D) Twenty four months
53. ____ says that if we keep increasing the employment of an input, with other inputs fixed, eventually a point will
be reached after which the resulting addition to output (i.e., marginal product of that input) will start falling.
(A) Law of diminishing marginal product
(B) Law of variable proportions
(C) The Short Run
(D) The Long Run
54. 'Mount Etna' volcano is located in which country?
(A) Iceland (B) Japan
(C) Italy (D) Ecuador
55. ______ is a branch of political science that deals with the "quantitative analysis of elections and balloting".
(A) Pisciculture (B) Agriculture
(C) Psephology (D) Horticulture
56. Who among the following British Prime Ministers had announced the Communal Award in 1932 during India's
Freedom Movement?
(A) James Ramsay MacDonald
(B) Herbert Henry Asquith
(C) David Lloyd George
(D) Andrew Bonar Law
57. The invasion of Delhi by Timur in _____ A.D marked the end of the Tughlaq Empire.
(A) 1645 (B) 1398
(C) 1452 (D) 1215
58. Mihira Bhoja was the ruler of ______.
(A) Rashtrakuta (B) Chola
(C) Pratihara (D) Chalukya
59. National Waterway-1 is on which water system?
(A) West Coast Canal
(B) River Brahamputra
(C) Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hoogli River
(D) Sundarbans Waterways
60. In which state is the Sarhul festival celebrated?
(A) Gujarat (B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Jharkhand (D) Assam
61. The temple at Lepakshi famous for its hanging pillars and constructed in Vijayanagara style is also called
_________ temple.
(A) Mahalakshmi (B) Veerabhadra
(C) Mahakaal (D) Murugan
62. On which date 'World Rhino Day' is celebrated every year?
(A) 18 December (B) 27 October
(C) 11 August (D) 22 September
63. India observes 'Good Governance Day' on the birth anniversary of ________.
(A) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(B) Jyoti Basu
(C) BR Ambedkar
(D) Jai Prakash Narayan
64. Tezpur University is a Central University located in Tezpur in which state?
(A) West Bengal (B) Assam
(C) Maharashtra (D) Rajasthan
65. Bhavai and Kalbelia as traditional dance forms, owe their genesis to which Indian state?
(A) Punjab (B) Rajasthan
(C) Assam (D) Odisha
66. Which of the following years is called the Year of the Great Divide in the demographic history of India?
(A) 1931 (B) 1911
(C) 1921 (D) 1951
67. As per the Constitution of India, the subject of 'livestock and animal husbandry' is included in the:
(A) Residuary List (B) State List
(C) Union List (D) Concurrent List
68. How many members can be appointed in Rajya Sabha from Uttar Pradesh?
(A) 22 (B) 39
(C) 31 (D) 18
69. The Indian Administrative Service and the Indian Police Service are deemed to be services created by the
Parliament under:
(A) Article 307 (B) Article 292
(C) Article 301 (D) Article 312
70. The first Indian satellite 'Aryabhata' was launched on 19 April _______.
(A) 1977 (B) 1974
(C) 1976 (D) 1975
71. The Thar Desert, also known as the Great Indian Desert, lies towards the western margins of ______ hills.
(A) Udgalakal (B) Aravali
(C) Shevroy (D) Javadi
72. _______ are a type of debt instrument that is not secured by physical assets or collateral.
(A) Bonds (B) Debentures
(C) Mortgages (D) Treasury Bills
73. Under which Article of the Constitution of India can the President promulgate an ordinance?
(A) Article 75 (B) Article 101
(C) Article 123 (D) Article 168
74. How many new domestic cargo terminals will be set up by the government by the year 2024- 2025 which will play
a vital role in the progress of India's cargo sector?
(A) 22 (B) 10
(C) 33 (D) 15
75. According to the central government, the target has been set to reduce the number of deaths in road accidents by
what percentage by the year 2024?
(A) thirty percent (B) fifty percent
(C) ten percent (D) twenty percent English Language
76. Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.The _________ of the adoption of intensive maize agriculture
on the human skeletal system is well documented.
(A) compact (B) impact
(C) reflect (D) deflect
77. Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. A police operation to _______ alcohol-related crime in the
town centres of north Kent is under way.
(A) transform (B) observe
(C) tackle (D) begin
78. Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. concord
(A) accord (B) discord
(C) record (D) cord
79. Out of the following choose the word which expresses the word opposite in meaning to the given word. Headstrong
(A) docile (B) petite
(C) indifferent (D) mammoth
80. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. Scorn
(A) deny (B) quell
(C) conceal (D) disregard
81. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. Deride
(A) deprive (B) fortify
(C) repair (D) ridicule
82. Select the correct active form of the given sentence. His intention was declared by him.
(A) He declared his intention.
(B) He declares his intention.
(C) He has declared his intention.
(D) He will declare his intention.
Direction (83-87): In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blank withthe help of the
alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
Most visitors to Alaska will surely see a bald eagle before they ______ the state. The bald eagle population is
reported to be more than 30,000 in Alaska, and Haines, Alaska, located in Southeast, boasts one of the ________
concentrations of bald eagles in North America. Every October, eagles flock to the nearby Chilkat Bald Eagle Preserve.
Eagles come______ the late run of salmon; people come to _______ and photograph them as they feast.The 48,000
-acre Chilkat Bald Eagle Preserve is _______ by road on Highway 7 or via the Alaska Marine Highway System's ferry or
by cruise ship. 83. before they ______ the state
(A) leave (B) plead
(C) consume (D) yield
84. one of the ________ concentrations
(A) funniest (B) largest
(C) angriest (D) tallest
85. come ______ the late run of salmon
(A) across (B) for
(C) around (D) back
86. come to _______ and photograph
(A) observe (B) attain
(C) utilize (D) aid
87. is _______ by road on Highway 7 or
(A) refined (B) allowed
(C) accessible (D) hostile
88. Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence. "Will you sit with me?" the girl said to me.
(A) The girl asked me if I will sit with her.
(B) The girl asked me if I would sit with me.
(C) The girl asked me if you would sit with her.
(D) The girl asked me if I would sit with her.
89. Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. An imaginary ideal society free of suffering
(A) utopia (B) anarchy
(C) sacrilege (D) verbatim
90. Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. A person who performs gymnastic feats
(A) actuary (B) acrobat
(C) anecdote (D) agnostic
91. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need
to substitute it, select No improvement. Tourist guides often carry umbrellas so that they stand out in a crowd.
(A) stand aside (B) stand by
(C) stand for (D) No Improvement
92. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need
to substitute it, select No improvement.As the officer was about to go along with the cars, three more vehicles
rounded the curve at a similar rate of speed.
(A) go off (B) go after
(C) go about (D) No Improvement
93. The 1st and the last sentence of the passage (or parts of a sentence) are numbered 1 and 6. The rest is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their which of the four combinations is correct and indicate it. 1. Approximately 3.3 million years ago someone began chipping away at a rock by the side of a river.P. Eventually, this chipping formed the rock into a tool used, perhaps, to prepare meat or crack nuts. Q. And this
technological feat occurred before humans even showed up on the evolutionary scene. R. That's the conclusion of an analysis of the oldest stone tools yet discovered. S. Unearthed in a dried-up riverbed in Kenya, they predate the previous record holder by around 700,000 years. 6. Though it's unclear who made the tools, the find is the latest and most convincing in a string of evidence that toolmaking began before any members of the Homo genus walked the Earth.
(A) PRSQ (B) PQRS
(C) RQSP (D) RPQS
94. Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given option pick the one that gives their correct order.
P. But the researchers believe it may just be areflection of the dismal state of the ocean. Q. In the 1950s, fishing
fleets wasted about 5 million tons of fish per year. R. But that number jumped to 18 million tons in the 1980s before
dropping down to 10 million tons in the last decade.S. The latest drop could be the result of better fisheries management and technology.
(A) QRSP (B) QPRS
(C) RQSP (D) RPQS
95. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. Tempest in a teapot (A) a commotion about something trivial
(B) to lose one's temper
(C) to act as if something does not matter
(D) to wait for the right time
96. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. Take a rain check
(A) decline an invitation
(B) to fall sick unexpectedly
(C) to suddenly remember something
(D) to go out in bad weather
97. Select the correct spelling of the word.
(A) briliance (B) brilliance
(C) brillience (D) brillieance
98. Select the wrongly spelt word.
(A) calamity (B) compassion
(C) barbarity (D) placcid
99. In the sentence, identify the segment which contains the grammatical error.Demand for cattle has been hamper
(A)/ by the flood of cheap unlabelled foreign imports (B)/and generally the price has dipped. (C)/ No error (D)
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
100. In the sentence, identify the segment which contains the grammatical error.A large number of everyday
foodstuffs (A)/ that we enjoy today have (B)/ there origins in the (C)/ rainforests of the world.
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
Answers
Quantitative Aptitude
1. Answer: (A)
Let the digit at unit place be x Therefore, digit at hundred's place = 3x
Let the digit at ten's place be y
Therefore, original number = 100 × 3x + 10y +
x
= 301x + 10y
Reversed number = 100x + 10y + 3x = 103x +
10y
According to the question,
301x + 10y – (103x + 10y) = 396
Or, x = 396/198 = 2
Therefore, digit at unit's place = x = 2
Digit at hundred's place = 3x = 6
Digit at ten's place = 13 – (6 + 2) = 5
2. Answer: (D)
Since, '424x465y' is divisible by 72. So, it
must be divisible by '8' as well as '9'.
So, '65y' must be divisible by 8.
So, y = 6
And, (x + 31) must be divisible by 9.
So, x = 5
So, x2 + y2 – 3xy = 25 + 36 – 3 × 5 × 6 = -29
3. Answer: (D)
Given,
0.416¯
× 36 - 1.125 × ????
0.6¯
× 24 + 0.583¯
× 12
=
-21
23
5
12 × 36 -98
× ????
23
× 24 + 7
12 × 12
=
-21
23
Or, {15 – (9x/8)}/(16 + 7) = -21/23
Or, 15 – 9x/8 = (-21/23) × 23
Or, 15 – (9x/8) = -21
Or, 9x/8 = 36
Or, x = 32
4. Answer: (C)
According to the question,
Here, OA = 12 units, OB = 13 units
Therefore, area of the triangle = (OA × OB)/2
= (12 × 13)/2 = 78 sq. units
5. Answer: (A)
Selling price of article 'A' = 0.55 × 1.60 × 1200
= Rs.1056
Selling price of article 'E' = 0.85 × 1.50 × 920
= Rs.1173
Desired difference = 1173 – 1056 =Rs.117
6. Answer: (D)
Cost price of article 'B'= 1531.2/(1.45 × 0.80)
= Rs.1320
Cost price of article 'D' = 1209.6/(1.40 × 0.90)
= Rs.960
Desired percentage = [(1320 – 960)/960] × 100
= 37.5%
7. Answer: (B)
Selling price of article 'A' = 0.55 × 1.60 × 8000
= Rs.7040
Selling price of article 'C' = 0.60 × 1.80 × 4000
= Rs.4320
Desired Average = (7040 + 4320)/2 = Rs.5680
8. Answer: (A)
Given, x2 + y2 + z2 = 50
And, (xy + yz + zx) = -17
Therefore, (x + y + z)2 = x2 + y2 + z2 + 2xy +2yz + 2zx
= x2 + y2 + z2 + 2(xy + yz + zx) = 50 + 2 × (-7) = 16
Therefore, (x + y + z)2 = 16
9. Answer: (B)
Let the sum received by 'A', 'B' and 'C' be
Rs.5x, Rs.3x and Rs.6x, respectively
According to the question,
5x – 3x = 800
Or, 2x = 800
Or, x = 400
Therefore, sum received by 'C' = 6x = Rs.2400
10. Answer: (A)
Ratio of profit share of 'A' to 'B' = [720 × 5 +
800 × 3]:[560 × 5 + 400 × 3] = 6000:4000 = 3:2
Profit share of 'A' = 3/5 × 2000 = Rs.1200
11. Answer: (C)
Amount kept by Ram = 50% 7800 = ?3900
Amount received by Bharat = 7800 – 3900 = Rs.3900
Amount received by Lakshman = 50% of 3900 = Rs.1950
Amount received by Satrughan = 40% of 1950 = Rs.780
12. Answer: (C)
Let the cost price of article 'A' be Rs.x
Therefore, cost price of article 'B' = Rs.(x – 400)
According to the question,
(x + x – 400) = 3240
Or, 2x = 3640
Or, x = 1820
Therefore, cost price of article 'A' = Rs.1820
Cost price of article 'B' = Rs.1420
Therefore, selling price of article 'A'
= 1.25 × 1820 = Rs.2275
Selling price of article 'A' and 'B', together
= 1.4 × 3240 = Rs.4536
Therefore, selling price of article 'A'
= 4536 – 2275 = Rs.2261
13. Answer: (C)
Quantity of radioactive element after 2 hours
= (0.95)4 × 8000 = 6516.05 kg
14. Answer: (C)
Option a: 30 litres, 60 litres
(240 + 30)/(160 + 60) = 270/220 = 27/22
It cannot be answer.
Option b: 80 litres, 50 litres
(240 + 80)/(160 + 50) = 320/210 = 32/21
It cannot be answer.
Option c: 40 litres, 50 litres
(240 + 40)/(160 + 50) = 280/210 = 4/3
It can be answer.
Option d: 60 litres, 80 litres
(240 + 60)/(160 + 80) = 300/240 = 5/4
It cannot be answer.
15. Answer: (C)Maximum possible daily wages = H.C.F of
4500 and 6250 i.e. Rs.250
16. Answer: (A)
Let, starting speed = 'x' km/h
Speed after 3 hours = 120% of x = '1.2x' km/h
Speed after 6 hours = 120% of 1.2x = '1.44x'
km/h
Speed after 9 hours = 120% of 1.44x = '1.728x'
km/h
So, (x + 1.2x + 1.44x + 1.728x) × 3 = 1207.8
Or, 16.104x = 1207.8
Or, x = 75
Required speed = 1.728x = 129.6 km/hr
17. Answer: (B)
Let, downstream speed and upstream speed be
'd' km/hr and 'u' km/hr, respectively
So, 80/d + 110/u = 3
Or, 1.5 × (80/d + 110/u) = 1.5 × 3
Or, 120/d + 165/u = 4.5
Required time = 4.5 hours
18. Answer: (B)
Let three angles be '4x', 'x' and 'x'
respectively.
So, 4x + x + x = 180
Or, 6x = 180
Or, x = 30
The angles are 120o, 30o and 30o respectively.
Let BC is the largest side.
And, since angle ABC = angle ACB
So, AB = AC {side opposite to equal angle}
By sine rule, we have;
BC/sinA = AC/sinB = AB/sinC
So, y/sin120o = x/sin30o = x/sin30o
So, y/(v3/2) = x/(1/2)
Or, y = v3x
So, y/(x + x + y) = y/(2x + y) = v3x/(v3x + 2x)
= v3/(2 + v3)
19. Answer: (C)
(9x3 – x)/{7(3x + 1)(24x – 8)} = {x(9x2 –1)}/{7 × 8(3x + 1)(3x – 1)}
= {x(9x2 – 1)}/{56(9x2 – 1)} because (a + b)(a– b)
= a2 - b2
Or, (9x3 – x)/{7(3x + 1)(24x – 8)} = x/56 =26880/56
= 480
20. Answer: (A)
(1 + cotx – cosecx)(1 + cosx + sinx)secx
= {1 + (cosx/sinx) – (1/sinx)}{(1 + cosx +sinx)} × 1/cosx
= (sinx + cosx – 1)/sinx × (cosx + sinx + 1) ×1/cosx
The numerator is of the form (a + b)(a – b),where a
= (sinx + cosx) and b = 1
Therefore, using (a + b)(a – b) = a2 – b2
= {(sinx + cosx)2 – 1} × 1/sinxcosx
= {sin2x + cos2x + 2sinxcosx – 1} × 1/sinxcosx
Since, sin2x + cos2x = 1, therefore
= 2sinxcosx/sinxcosx = 2
21. Answer: (D)
Area of the remaining field = x(x + 12) – x × 8
– 8(x + 12) + 64 = 448
Or, x(x + 12) – 8x – 8(x + 12) = 384
Or, x2 + 12x – 8x – 8x – 96 = 384
Or, x2 – 4x – 480 = 0
Or, x2 – 24x + 20x – 480 = 0
Or, x(x – 24) + 20(x – 24) = 0
Or, (x + 20)(x – 24) = 0
Or, x = 24
22. Answer: (D)
Let the number of cubes formed be 'N'
Therefore, volume of all the cubes = volume of
the cuboid
Or, N × 83 = (32 × 24 × 4) Or, N = (32 × 24
×4)/512 = 6
23. Answer: (B)
Let in quadrilateral ABCD sides AB, BC, CD
and DA touches the circle at points 'P', 'Q', 'R'
and 'S', respectively.
Given, AB = 12.8 cm, BC = 7.5 cm and CD =5.6 cm
Let BP = x cm
Therefore, AP = (12.8 – x) cm
Now, BP = BQ = x cm (tangents drawn from
common point are equal)
Similarly, AP = AS = (12.8 – x) cm
Now, QC = CR = (7.5 – x) cm (tangents drawn
from common point are equal)
Also, DR = DS = 5.6 – (7.5 – x) = (x – 1.9) cm
(tangents drawn from common point are equal)
Therefore, AD = AS + DS = x – 1.9 + 12.8 – x
= 10.9 cm
24. Answer: (D)
13/sec2x + 8/(1 + cot2x) + 5sin2x
Using, cosx = (1/secx) and cosec2x – cot2x = 1,
we get
= 13cos2x + 8/cosec2x + 5sin2x
= 13cos2x + 8sin2x + 5sin2x {Since, sinx =(1/cosecx)}
= 13cos2x + 13sin2x = 13(cos2x + sin2x)
= 13 (since, sin2x + cos2x = 1)
25. Answer: (D)
Since, a = 15 + 2v56
And, b = v(15 - 2v56) or b2 = 15 - 2v56
Therefore, ab2 = (15 + 2v56)(15 - 2v56) = 152
– (2v56)2 = 225 – 224 = 1 {Since, (a + b)(a – b)
= a2 – b2}
So, {1/(a4 + 1)} + {1/(b8 + 1)}
= {1/(a4 + 1)} + {1/(b2)4 + 1}
= {1/(a4 + 1)} + {a4/(a4 + 1)}
= {(a4 + 1)/(a4 + 1)}
= 1
Alternate:
Since, b2 = 1/a, therefore, given expression = 1
[Since, {1/(an + 1)} + {1/(bn + 1)} = 1, where b
= 1/a]
Reasoning Aptitude
26. Answer: (C)
Given set (23, 8, 41)
(23 + 1) ÷ 3 = 8, (8 × 5) + 1 = 41
In option (c), (14 + 1) ÷ 3 = 5, (5 × 5) + 1 = 26
27. Answer: (A)
Option (a): X – 3 = U, U - 4 = Q, Q – 8 = I
Option (b): T – 3 = Q, Q - 5 = L, L – 7 = E
Option (c): P – 3 = M, M - 5 = H, H – 7 = A
Option (d): X – 3 = U, U - 5 = P, P – 7 = I
28. Answer: (C)
As A = 26 i.e. (reverse alphabetical position)
In CLAIM, C(24) + L(15) + A(26) + I(18)
+M(14)= 97
Similarly, In PRINT, P(11) + R(9) + I(18) +
N(13) + T(7) = 58
29. Answer: (A)
Given series:
4, 13, 41, 127, 382, 1151
Pattern:
4 × 3 + 1 = 13.
13 × 3 + 2 = 41
41 × 3 + 3 = 126 but we have given 127
126 × 3 + 4 = 382
382 × 3 + 5 = 1151
So, 127 is the wrong number.
30. Answer: (C)
Given series,
w _ w z _ _ w x w _ w y _ x w _ w y
Now, we know that there is (x) between 2 w's
given in the series, so, in 1st blank we will use (x).
w x w z w y /w x w z w y /w x w z w y
31. Answer: (A)
The pattern is:
Row 1: 12 × 9 = 108 : 108 + 6 = 114
Row 2: 15 × 6 = 90 : 90 + 6 = 96
Row 3: 14 × 5 = 70 : 70 + 6 = 76
32. Answer: (A)
Given,
20 V 12 N 96 Q 6 X 4
After placing the signs in place of alphabets we get,
20 – 12 + 96 ÷ 6 × 4
20 – 12 + 16 × 4
20 – 12 + 64 = 72
33. Answer: (D)
All the words can be formed except the word 'ELECT' because there is no 'L' in the given word.
34. Answer: (D)
The words are arranged as per the dictionary order: Quantity, Question, Raise, Rarely, Recovery, Sadness.
35. Answer: (C)
Since, Laptop and Mobile are different entities so, option (a) cannot be our answer. Cricket, Hockey and Badminton are
different entities from the each other so, option (b) cannot be our answer.Paddy is a crop so, option (d) cannot be our
answer. So, option (c) i.e., Water, Hydrogen,Atmosphere because Hydrogen is a constituent of both Water and
Atmosphere.
36. Answer: (A)
The sum of weight of four boxes
80+40+30+90=240
= 80+40+90=210= 40+30+90=160
37. Answer: (C)
Following table shows how the letters of the given word are represented.
38. Answer: (C)
Point U is in south-east of point P.
39. Answer: (D)
So, H is niece of B.
40. Answer: (B)
Clues: B sits second to the left of A. D sits opposite to F, who is not adjacent to B. C is not
adjacent to A. Inference: So, D sits immediate left of A. Since,C is not adjacent to A, so, C sits immediate
right of F and E sits immediate left of F.
So, C sits immediate right of F.
41. Answer: (B)
Following figures can be formed from the statements:
As, all dog are cat, it doesn't necessarily mean that some mouse are cat. So, conclusion I does not follow. Also, all
cat will be dog, so,conclusion II follows.
42. Answer: (A)
43. Answer: (A)
Lines: HI, HK, IF, DJ, GE, GF, EA, AB, CB, DC So, minimum 10 lines are required to form the figure.
44. Answer: (B)
If mirror is placed to the right of the figure.
45. Answer: (C)
Here, the figure is rotating by 450 anticlockwise.
46. Answer: (A)Given numbers,
82 : 72 : : 75 : ? : : 97 : 83
So, the pattern is:
82 (8+2) = 10; 82 – 10 = 72
75 (7+5) = 12; 79 – 12 = 63
99 (9+7) = 18; 99 – 16 = 83
47. Answer: (D)Mango is a fruit similarly Ginger is a stem.
48. Answer: (B)
Given that,
MAINTAIN – LNIAUNIA
Similarly, 'JUNCTION' is coded as
'ICNUUNOI'.
49. Answer: (B)
So, there are four such pairs i.e. ST, IM, GI and GM, which have as many letters between them as in the English
alphabet.
50. Answer: (B)
Given series:
XYZ, CBA, MNO, RQP, HGF Now, according to the English alphabetical,XYZ (consecutive letters in ascending order)
CBA (consecutive letters in descending order) MNO (consecutive letters in ascending order) RQP (consecutive letters in descending order) But, HGF (consecutive letters in descending order) so, this pattern cannot be repeated again. Thus, HGF is the wrong term. General Studies
51. Answer: (B)
Genes are made of a chemical called DNA, which is short for 'deoxyribonucleic acid'. TheDNA molecule is a double
helix: that is, two long, thin strands twisted around each other like a spiral staircase. The sides are sugar and
phosphate molecules.
52. Answer: (C)
Therefore, required time elapsed = 6 × 2 = 12
months
53. Answer: (A)
Law of diminishing marginal Product: The law of diminishing marginal Product states that if we keep increasing the
employment of an input, with other inputs fixed, eventually a point will be reached after which the resulting
addition to output (i.e., marginal product of that input) will start falling.
54. Answer: (C)
Italy’s Mount Etna which is Europe’s highest and most active volcano erupted recently.
55. Answer: (C)
Psephology is a branch of political science, the "quantitative analysis of elections and balloting". As such, psephology attempts to scientifically explicate elections. d and ornamental plants.
56. Answer: (A)
On August 16, 1932, the British Prime Minister, Ramsay MacDonald, announced the Communal Award which provided
for separate electorates for the 'Depressed Classes',the Muslims, the Europeans, the Sikhs, the Anglo-Indians and the Indian-based Christians.
57. Answer: (B)
In 1398, Timur invaded northern India, attacking the Delhi Sultanate ruled by Sultan Nasir-ud-Din Mahmud Shah
Tughluq of the Tughlaq dynasty. After crossing the Indus River on 30 September 1398, he sacked Tulamba and
massacred its inhabitants. Then he advanced and captured Multan by October.
58. Answer: (C)
Mihira Bhoja (c. 836–885 CE) or Bhoja I was a ruler of the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty of India. He succeeded his father Ramabhadra.
59. Answer: (C)
The National Waterway 1 or NW-1 or Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system is located in India and runs from Haldia
to Prayagraj across the Ganges, Bhagirathi and Hooghly river systems. It is 1,620 km long, making it the longest
waterway in India.National Waterway 2 is a section of the Brahmaputra River having a length of 891 km between the
Bangladesh border near Dhubri and Sadiya in Assam.
60. Answer: (C)
One of the most popular tribal festivals celebrated across the Jharkhand region, Sarhul festival marks the beginning of New Year. It is celebrated every year on Chaitra Shukla Tritiya, which is the third moon day falling in the month of Chaitra. According to the western calendar, it comes in March or April. In 2021, it is falling on 15th April.
61. Answer: (B)
Veerabhadra temple is a Hindu temple located in Lepakshi, in the state of Andhra Pradesh, India. The temple is
dedicated to Virabhadra, a fierce emanation of Lord Shiva. Constructed in Vijayanagara style, the temple isfamous
for its hanging pillars.
62. Answer: (D)
‘World Rhino Day’ is celebrated on September 22 every year. This special day provides the opportunity for
cause-related organizations, NGOs, zoos, and members of the public to celebrate rhinos in their own unique ways.
63. Answer: (A)
Good Governance Day is observed in India annually on the twenty-fifth day of December, the birth anniversary of
former-Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee. Good Governance Day was established in 2014 to honor Prime Minister
Vajpayee by fostering awareness among the Indian people of accountability in government.
64. Answer: (B)
Prime Minister Narendra Modi virtually addressed the 18th Convocation of the Tezpur University of Assam through
video conferencing. Tezpur University is a Central University located in Tezpur in the North Eastern state of Assam, India, established by an act of Parliament, in 1994.
Other News:
Assam’s Tezpur Litchi has been given the geographical indication (GI) tag, though the litchis name in the GI tag list is there since 2015.
65. Answer: (B)
Bhavai Dance:
Traditionally, this genre of dance was performed by the female performers belonging to the Jat,
Bhil, Raigar, Meena, Kumhar, and Kalbelia communities of Rajasthan.
Kalbelia Dance:
Kalbelia or Kabeliya is a tribe from Rajasthan, India, there is also a dance of the same name. The dance is an integral part of their culture and performed by men and women.
66. Answer: (C)
The year 1921 is often referred to as the “Year of the Great Divide,” the last period in which India's population declined, due to the effects of famine.
67. Answer: (B)
State List: State List enumerates the subjects on which each State Legislature can legislate and such laws operate within the territory of each state. The main subjects of the State List are: public order, police, state court fees, prisons, local government, public health and sanitation, hospitals and dispensaries, pilgrimages within India, intoxicating liquors, relief of disabled and unemployable, libraries, communications,agriculture, animal husbandry, water supply, irrigation and canals, fisheries, road passenger tax and goods tax, capitation tax and others.
68. Answer: (C)
Uttar Pradesh state elects 31 members and they are indirectly elected by the state legislators of Uttar Pradesh. Members are elected for six years and 1/3 of members are retired after every two years.
69. Answer: (D)
Accordingly, a provision was made in Article 312 of the Constitution for creation of one or more All India Services common to the Union and State. The Indian Administrative Service nd The Indian Police Service are deemed to be constituted by the Parliament in terms of Article 312 of the Constitution.
70. Answer: (D)
The Aryabhata spacecraft, named after the famous Indian astronomer, was India's first satellite; it was completely designed and fabricated in India and launched by a Soviet Kosmos-3M rocket from Kapustin Yar on April 19, 1975.
71. Answer: (B)
The Thar Desert covers some 77,000 square miles (200,000 square km) of territory. It is bordered by the irrigated Indus River plain to the west, the Punjab Plain to the north and northeast, the Aravalli Range to the southeast,and the Rann of Kachchh to the south.
72. Answer: (B)
A debenture is a type of debt instrument that is not secured by physical assets or collateral. Debentures are backed only by the general creditworthiness and reputation of the issuer. Both corporations and governments frequently issue this type of bond to secure capital.
73. Answer: (C)
Article 123 deals with the ordinance making power of the President. President has many legislative powers and this power is one of them. He can only promulgate the ordinance under these circumstances:When both the houses oreither of the house is not in session Circumstances occur where the President thinks it necessary to act without waiting for houses to assemble
74. Answer: (C)
The government will set up 33 new domestic mcargo terminals by the year 2024-2025 which will play an important role in the progress of India's cargo sector. Regarding the reforms in the cargo sector, Scindia said that the industrialists need to focus on transporting small cargo loads from Tier-2 and 3 cities to metros to achieve the target of 10 million nmetric tonnes of cargo. He said that this target can be achieved by purchasing small size aircraft.
75. Answer: (B)
According to the central government, the target has been set to reduce the number of deaths in road accidents by fifty percent by the year 2024. Road Transport and Highways Minister Nitin Gadkari in a program emphasized on tackling road safety issues with stakeholders. He said that road safety is a very sensitive matter. Road accidents should be taken seriously and potential accident sites should be given immediate attention.English Language
76. Answer: (B)
We need a noun here to be modified by the definite article THE. IMPACT (influence) will fit here as the sentence tells us how the influence of the adoption of intensive maize agriculture on the human skeletal system. Thus, (b) is the right answer.Compact - squeezed. Reflect - think deeply. Deflect - cause to change direction suddenly.
77. Answer: (C)
We need a base form verb to fit in the TO + VERB infinitive construction. TACKLE (address) will fit here as the sentence tells us how a police operation to resolve the problem of alcoholrelated crime is under way. Thus, (c) is the right answer.Transform - change. Observe - see; view. Begin -start; commence.
78. Answer: (B)
CONCORD refers to agreement or harmony.DISCORD (disagreement) is its antonym, which will make (b) the right answer. ACCORD is a synonym. Record - written account of something. Cord - rope.
79. Answer: (A)
HEADSTRONG means strong-willed or stubborn. DOCILE (pliant) is its antonym, which will make (a) the right answer. Petite - small. Indifferent - uncaring. Mammoth - huge.
80. Answer: (D)
SCORN means to express contempt for something or someone. DISREGARD is its synonym, which will make (d) the right answer. Deny - reject. Quell - suppress. Conceal - hide.
81. Answer: (D)
DERIDE means to mock or taunt. RIDICULE is its synonym, which will make (d) the right answer.Deprive - cause a lack. Fortify - strengthen. Repair - mend; fix.
82. Answer: (A)
The sentence is in indicative mood and passive voice. Follow the rules below to convert a
sentence in indicative mood to active voice:
1. The subject clause will become the object clause. Here, the subject (HIS INTENTION) will change to the object of the verb, and the object pronoun HIM will change into the subject form HE and begin the sentence.
2. Replace WAS DECLARED with DECLARED.
3. Remove the conjunction BY before HIM. Option (a) is the right answer.
83. Answer: (A)
We need a plural verb to agree with the plural subject pronoun THEY. LEAVE (depart from) will fit here as the sentence tells us how most visitors will see a bald eagle before they depart from the state. Thus, (a) is the right answer. Plead - beg. Consume - eat; use up. Yield -produce.
84. Answer: (B)
We need a superlative degree adjective to modify the noun CONCENTRATIONS. LARGEST (biggest) will fit here as the sentence tells us how the bald eagle population in Alaska is one of the biggest in North America. Thus, (b) is the right answer. Funniest - causing amusement. Angriest - furious. Tallest - high.
85. Answer: (B)
COME FOR (to go somewhere for a purpose) will fit here as the sentence tells us how the eagles go to preserve to feed on the salmon. Thus, (b) is the right answer.Come across - meet or find by accident. Come around - to change one’s mind. Come back -return.
86. Answer: (A)
We need a base form verb to fit in the TO + VERB infinitive construction. OBSERVE (watch) will fit here as the sentence tells us how people come to watch the eagles as they feed. Thus, (a) is the right answer. Attain - achieve. Utilize - use. Aid - help; assist.
87. Answer: (C)
We need an adjective to modify the noun PRESERVE. ACCESSIBLE (able to be reached) will fit here as the sentence tells us how one might reach the preserve. Thus, (c) is the right answer. Refined - improved. Allowed - permitted. Hostile - unfriendly; aggressive.
88. Answer: (D)
Option (d) is the right answer. The sentence is in direct speech and in interrogative mood. To convert this sentence to the indirect speech, follow these rules:
1. Remove the question mark and the inverted commas.
2. Replace the reporting verb SAID TO with ASKED. The preposition TO is redundant after ASKED, so it has
to be removed. Begin the indirect speech sentence with the reporting speech clause THE GIRL ASKED ME.
3. The modal verb WILL will change to WOULD.
4. The second person subjective pronoun YOU and the first person objective pronoun ME will change to the first
person subjective pronoun I and the third person objective pronoun HER respectively.
5. Introduce the conditional IF before the question part of the sentence.
6. The syntax of a sentence in indicative mood will be used: THE GIRL ASKED ME + IF +subject (I) + verb clause WOULD SIT + object of verb WITH HER.
89. Answer: (A)
A UTOPIA refers to an imaginary ideal society free of suffering. Thus, (a) is the right answer. Anarchy - the breakdown of a government. Sacrilege - the violation or misuse of something regarded as sacred. Verbatim - in exactly the same words as originally used.
90. Answer: (B)
An ACROBAT refers to a person who performs gymnastic feats. Thus, (b) is the right answer.Actuary - one who
calculates insurance and annuity premium. Anecdote - a short, interesting or amusing story. Agnostic - a person who
believes that nothing can be known about God.
91. Answer: (D)
STAND OUT (to be different from others) will fit here as the sentence tells us how the tourist guides
make themselves noticeable in a crowd. Thus, (d) is the right answer. Stand aside - step sideways to make
place for someone else. Stand by - support. Stand for -tolerate.
92. Answer: (B)
GO AFTER (follow; pursue) will fit here as the sentence tells us how the officer was about to follow the cars. Thus, (b) is the right answer.Go off - explode. Go about - take the necessary steps to bring about an outcome. Go along with - to consent or agree to.
93. Answer: (B)
1-PQRS-6 is the final order. 1 begins the passage by introducing the first event and when it took place - 3.3 million years ago, someone began chipping away at a rock. P follows by telling us how this rock formed into a tool. Q tells us how this took place even before human being evolved. R tells us that this is the conclusion of an analysis of the oldest stone tools yet to be discovered. S concludes by telling us where these tools were found and how old they are. 6 concludes by telling us how these tools are evidence that toolmaking began before human being evolved. Thus, (b) is the right answer.
94. Answer: (A)
QRSP is the final order. Q begins the passage by telling us about a past scenario - fishing fleets wasted 5 million tons of fish in the 1950s. R follows by telling us how many fish were wasted in the last decade, and how it was a drop. SP concludes as a pair: S tells us a possible reason behind this drop - better fisheries management and technology, and P tells us how some scientists believe that it would reflect the poor state of the ocean. Thus, (a) is the right answer.
95. Answer: (A)
The idiom TEMPEST IN A TEAPOT means a commotion about something unimportant or small. Thus, (a) is the right answer.
96. Answer: (A)
The idiom TAKE A RAIN CHECK means to turn down an invitation. Thus, (a) is the right answer.
97. Answer: (B)
The correct spelling of the word is BRILLIANCE and it means exceptional quality or performance. Thus,
(b) is the right answer.
98. Answer: (D)
D is incorrectly spelled. PLACID (calm) is the correct spelling, which will make (d) the right answer.
Calamity - disaster. Compassion - kindness; sympathy. Barbarity - cruelty.
99. Answer: (A)
In A, replace the base form verb HAMPER with HAMPERED as the passive voice construction HAS + BEEN + VERB
will take the past participle form of the verb. Thus, (a) is the right answer.
100. Answer: (C)
In C, replace the adverb THERE with the possessive pronoun THEIR as the sentence talks about the origin of the
Foodstuffs. Thus, (c) is the right answer.
